SSC-CGL 2025 Questions

22 Sep 2025 • Shift 1

100 Questions AvailableTake as Test

Question 1

Logical Reasoning

Statements: 1. All mangoes are fruits. 2. Some fruits are apples. Conclusions: I. Some apples are mangoes. II. All mangoes are fruits.

Only conclusion II is false

Both conclusion I and II are false

Only conclusion I is false

Neither conclusion I nor II is false

Question 2

Logical Reasoning

Find the odd one out:

Rose

Lotus

Carrot

Lily

Question 3

Logical Reasoning

If HOUSE is coded as IPVTF, how is IPVTF coded?

JQWVG

JOWUG

JQWUG

JQXUG

Question 4

Logical Reasoning

The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 81. What is the largest number?

Question 5

Logical Reasoning

Eligibility Criteria: Minimum 55% in Graduation Typing speed 35 WPM Age between 21-30 years Case: Meena scored 60%, has 36 WPM typing speed, age 29.

Eligible

Not eligible due to age

Not eligible due to typing speed

Not eligible due to marks

Question 6

Logical Reasoning

Select the word that cannot be formed using the letters of the word: TEACHERS

CHEAT

REACHES

SEARCHER

HEARTS

Question 7

Logical Reasoning

What comes next: AB, CD, EF, GH, ?

Question 8

Logical Reasoning

If ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, ‘B’ denotes ‘-’, ‘C’ denotes ‘×’, ‘D’ denotes ‘÷’ Find the value of: 8 C 2 A 6 B 4 D 2 = ?

Question 9

Logical Reasoning

Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. Sample Address: No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069

No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069

52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069

No. 52, Green Vally Apartments, Andheri East, Mumbai, Maharashtra - 400069

No. 52, Green Valley Apartments, Andheri East, Mumabi, Maharashtra - 400069

Question 10

Logical Reasoning

Find the missing term in the seris. 2, 6, 18, 54, ?

164

166

162

160

Question 11

Logical Reasoning

A fire breaks out in an office. What should be your first step?

Inform fire brigade and evacuate people

Continue working

Lock the office

Ignore it

Question 12

Logical Reasoning

‘A @ B’ means A is the sister of B, ‘A # B’ means A is the mother of B, ‘A $ B’ means A is the father of B, ‘A % B’ means A is the brother of B. What is the relation in: P # Q @ R ?

P is the mother of R

Q is the brother of R

P is the grandmother of R

P is the aunt of R

Question 13

Logical Reasoning

If “DOG” is coded as “4-15-7”, how will “GOD” be coded?

7-15-4

4-7-15

15-4-7

7-4-15

Question 14

Logical Reasoning

Statement: Water shortage has increased in the city. Course of Action: 1. Government should start water conservation campaigns. 2. People should waste more water .

Both follow

Only 1 follows

Only 2 follows

Neither follows

Question 15

Logical Reasoning

Statements: 1. All chairs are tables. 2. Some tables are desks. Conclusions: I. Some desks are chairs. II. Some tables are chairs.

Neither I nor II follows

Only Conclusion II follows

Both I and II follow

Only Conclusion I follows

Question 16

Logical Reasoning

Statement: 1. All pens are pencils. 2. Some pencils are erasers. Conclusions: I. Some erasers are pens. II. Some pencils are pens.

Either I or II

Neither I nor II

Only I

Only II

Question 17

Logical Reasoning

Riya is the daughter of Amit. Amit is the son of Suresh. How is Riya related to Suresh?

Daughter

Granddaughter

Sister

Mother

Question 18

Logical Reasoning

Statement: 1. All cars are vehicles. 2. Some vehicles are bikes. 3. No bike is a bus. Conclusions: I. Some bikes are cars. II. Some vehicles are not cars.

Only I follows

Only II follows

Both I and II follow

Neither I nor II follows

Question 19

Logical Reasoning

If ‘+’ means ‘×’ ‘-’ means ‘÷’ ‘×’ means ‘+’ ‘÷’ means ‘-’. Choose the correct equation:

6 + 3 - 2 = 16

8 - 4 + 2 = 6

5 × 2 ÷ 1 = 6

9 ÷ 3 + 1 = 3

Question 20

Logical Reasoning

If + becomes -, - becomes +, × becomes ÷ and ÷ becomes × Find value of: 80 ÷ 4 + 10 - 5 × 2 = ?

310.5

314.5

322.5

312.5

Question 21

Logical Reasoning

Find the odd one out:

Question 22

Logical Reasoning

What comes next? B, E, H, K, ?

Question 23

Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of ? 200, 195, 185, 170, ?, 125

155

150

160

145

Question 24

Logical Reasoning

Fill in the missing letter: D, G, J, ?, P

Question 25

Logical Reasoning

In a certain code, BOARD is written as CPBSE. How is LIGHT written in that code?

MJHIU

MJIIU

MKHJU

MKHIU

Question 26

Consider the following statements about the novel Train to Pakistan: 1. It was written by Khushwant Singh and is set during the Partition of India in 1947. 2. The novel focuses on the events in a fictional village named Mano Majra. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Question 27

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has been enacted to replace which of the following colonial-era laws?

Indian Penal Code, 1860

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898

Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Police Act, 1861

Question 28

Fill in the blanks: Cricket is set to make its Olympic return at the _______ Games, marking the return of the sport to the Olympics after more than a century since its debut in 1900.

2024 Paris

2028 Los Angeles

2032 Brisbane

2036 Ahmedabad

Question 29

As an object is moved further away from the Earth's surface, its gravitational potential energy relative to the surface:

Increases

Decreases

Remains zero

First increases then decreases

Question 30

The Puranas, ancient Indian texts, are traditionally considered to be how many in number?

108

Question 31

India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory is:

AstroSat

Cartosat-1

INSAT-3DR

HysIS

Question 32

Under which Governor-General was the first Factory Act of 1881 passed to improve labor conditions in India?

Lord Ripon

Lord Lytton

Lord Mayo

Lord Dufferin

Question 33

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is provided constitutional status under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

Article 338

Article 338A

Article 338B

Article 340

Question 34

Consider the following statements: 1. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. 2. It is mentioned under Article 263 of the Constitution. 3. It has the authority to impose binding decisions on States. Which of the above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Question 35

Approximately how many massive gates (Pols) are there in the Kumbhalgarh Fort in Rajasthan?

Question 36

Who presided over the Indian National Congress session held at Karachi in 1931?

Vallabhbhai Patel

Jawaharlal Nehru

Subhas Chandra Bose

Rajendra Prasad

Question 37

Which of the following statements best describes Arundhati Bhattacharya's professional achievement?

She was the first woman Chairperson of State Bank of India

She founded the first private airline in India

She was the first female Governor of RBI

She pioneered India's first tech unicorn

Question 38

Which statement best reflects the outcome of land reforms in India between 1950-1970?

Intermediaries were abolished but tenancy reforms varied by state

All land was equally distributed to landless laborers

Private ownership of land was completely prohibited

Agriculture was entirely corporatized

Question 39

In the context of Indian ecology, the Mangrove ecosystem is characterized by: 1. Prevalence of halophytic plants with pneumatophores. 2. Location in the intertidal zones of tropical and subtropical sheltered coasts. 3. High levels of salt tolerance and anaerobic soil conditions.

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Question 40

The 'Hornbill Festival', also known as the 'Festival of Festivals', is celebrated by the tribal communities of which state?

Arunachal Pradesh

Nagaland

Meghalaya

Tripura

Question 41

Which Indian martial art, originating from Manipur, primarily utilizes the 'Sarit Sarak' (unarmed combat) and 'Thang' (sword) techniques?

Mardani Khel

Thang-Ta

Paika Akhada

Musti-yuddha

Question 42

Which of the following G20 countries has the longest total coastline?

Canada

Australia

USA

India

Question 43

The PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme is implemented by which Union Ministry?

Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare

Ministry of Jal Shakti

Ministry of Power

Question 44

Who was appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner of India in early 2026?

Shri Rajiv Kumar

Shri Anup Chandra Pandey

Shri Gyanesh Kumar

Shri Sukhbir Singh Sandhu

Question 45

Arrange the following segments of a traditional Kathak dance performance in order: 1. Tatkar (Footwork) 2. Thaat (Initial posture) 3. Amad (Entry/Introduction) 4. Tarana (Conclusion/Fast pace)

2-3-1-4

1-2-3-4

3-2-1-4

2-1-3-4

Question 46

What does the term 'Gadhaiya' refer to in the context of early medieval Western India?

A type of silver and copper coinage

A village headman

A revenue administrative unit

A temple architecture style

Question 47

What is the primary objective of 'Project Zorawar' recently in news regarding Indian defense?

Induction of light tanks for high altitude

Development of hypersonic missiles

Naval fleet expansion in Indian Ocean

Cybersecurity infrastructure upgrade

Question 48

In which city did India win its first-ever Test match against England in 1952?

Chennai

Mumbai

Kolkata

Delhi

Question 49

Which of the following is typically excluded from the calculation of National Income using the Expenditure Method?

Transfer payments like old-age pensions

Private final consumption expenditure

Gross domestic capital formation

Net exports

Question 50

According to the World Happiness Report 2025, which nation has consistently ranked at the top for consecutive years?

Finland

Denmark

Iceland

Norway

Question 51

Arithmetic

A spherical balloon is inflated, causing its radius to grow by 20%. By what percentage does its surface area increase?

20%

40%

44%

48%

Question 52

Arithmetic

A 60-litre mixture of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio 7:5. How much water must be added to make the ratio 7:8?

10 L

12 L

15 L

18 L

Question 53

Arithmetic

Which of the following numbers has a terminating decimal representation?

5/14

7/15

9/16

4/21

Question 54

Arithmetic

40 men can do a piece of work in 10 days. Find the time required by 25 men to do double the work.

28 Days

30 Days

32 Days

36 Days

Question 55

Arithmetic

The average weight of 30 students in a class is 50 kg. If the weight of the teacher is added, the average rises to 51 kg. What is the teacher's weight?

75 kg

78 kg

80 kg

81 kg

Question 56

Arithmetic

X and Y started a business by investing Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 80,000 respectively. After 4 months, Z joined with Rs. 100,000. At the end of the year, what is Z's share in a profit of Rs. 62,000?

Rs. 18,000

Rs. 20,000

Rs. 24,000

Rs. 30,000

Question 57

Arithmetic

Two right prisms have the same height of 12 cm. One has an equilateral triangle base with side 8 cm, and the other has a square base with side 8 cm. What is the ratio of their volumes?

√3:4

3√3:4

4:√3

3:4√3

Question 58

Arithmetic

If cosB = p/q and B ∈ (0, π/2), then what is sinB in terms of p and q ?

√𝑞2−𝑝2 𝑞

√𝑞2+𝑝2 𝑝

√𝑞2−𝑝2 𝑝

𝑝 √𝑞2−𝑝2

Question 59

Arithmetic

You earn $75.00 in 2.5 hours. Find your hourly wage as a fraction.

25/1

30/1

45/2

150/7

Question 60

Arithmetic

A chord of length 30 cm lies 8 cm away from the center of a circle. What is the approximate radius of the circle?

13 cm

15 cm

17 cm

20 cm

Question 61

Arithmetic

A rectangular sheet has an area equal to a square plot. If the sheet measures 64 m in length and 25 m in breadth, and the square plot has an area equal to the sheet, find the perimeter of the square plot.

120 m

140 m

160 m

180 m

Question 62

Arithmetic

A sum of money becomes 2.25 times itself in 2 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?

40%

50%

60%

75%

Question 63

Arithmetic

A chord CD of a circle has a length of 12 cm. The angle subtended by the chord at a point E on the major arc is 45°. Find the radius of the circle.

6√2𝑐𝑚

8 cm

8√2𝑐𝑚

12 cm

Question 64

Arithmetic

In a triangle PQR, side QR is extended to a point S. The exterior angle at R is 120°. The interior angles at P and Q are in the ratio 3:5. What is the measure of the largest interior angle of the triangle?

45°

60°

75°

80°

Question 65

Arithmetic

The area of a regular triangle increases by 69%. By what percentage did the side length increase?

25%

35%

34.5%

30%

Question 66

Arithmetic

P and Q together can do a piece of work in 15 days. P alone can do it in 24 days. In how many days can Q alone do it?

Question 67

Arithmetic

If cosA = -4/5 and A lies in the 3rd quadrant, then find the value of cosA × cscA.

3/4

4/3

-4/3

-3/4

Question 68

Arithmetic

Consider two triangles, △KLM and △XYZ. It is stated that these two triangles are congruent to each other, which is denoted as △KLM ≅ △XYZ and ∠K = 65°, what is the measure of ∠X?

55°

60°

65°

115°

Question 69

Arithmetic

The difference between 25% of a number and 15% of the same number is 150. What is the number?

1000

1200

1500

1800

Question 70

Arithmetic

Two numbers are in the ratio 7:4. If the difference between them is 24, find the numbers.

63 and 39

70 and 46

56 and 32

84 and 60

Question 71

Arithmetic

Given, 𝑥 + 1 𝑥 = 6, then determine the value of 4𝑥 𝑥2−1.

√2 2

2√2 3

√3 2

√2 4

Question 72

Arithmetic

What is the length of the segment joining (2,3) and (8,11)?

Question 73

Arithmetic

A man buys a set of 4 identical items at a total cost of Rs. 8,000. He sells them at Rs. 2,200, Rs. 2,000, Rs. 1,900, and Rs. 1,800, respectively. What is the overall profit or loss?

Rs. 100 profit

Rs. 200 loss

Rs. 200 profit

Rs. 100 loss

Question 74

Arithmetic

A bucket can hold 8 liters of water . How many such buckets are needed to fill a 2 cubic meter tank?

200

225

250

275

Question 75

Arithmetic

Prakash and Rahul start from the same point and walk at 6 km/h and 8 km/h respectively, in the same direction. What will be the distance between them after 3 hours?

4 km

5 km

6 km

8 km

Question 76

Comprehension

What should come in the place of blank number (1)? In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of bureaucratic (1) ___—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi- stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point where they attain the malleability of (2) _. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _ into ‘capacity-building opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones, absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities. Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) ___ posing as stewardship.

remedies

directives

instruments

lubricants

Question 77

Comprehension

What should come in the place of blank number (2)? In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of bureaucratic (1) ___—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi- stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point where they attain the malleability of (2) _. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _ into ‘capacity-building opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones, absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities. Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) ___ posing as stewardship.

legislation

rhetoric

tradition

vision

Question 78

Comprehension

What should come in the place of blank number (3)? In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of bureaucratic (1) ___—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi- stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point where they attain the malleability of (2) _. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _ into ‘capacity-building opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones, absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities. Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) ___ posing as stewardship.

projected

distorted

domesticated

suppressed

Question 79

Comprehension

What should come in the place of blank number (4)? In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of bureaucratic (1) ___—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi- stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point where they attain the malleability of (2) _. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _ into ‘capacity-building opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones, absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities. Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) ___ posing as stewardship.

amplified

archived

tokenized

rejected

Question 80

Comprehension

What should come in the place of blank number (5)? In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank: The language of global environmental governance has not so much progressed as hardened into a glossary of bureaucratic (1) ___—phrases designed more to burnish institutional credibility than to drive substantive ecological reform. What was once an ethical confrontation with the limits of planetary endurance has since retreated into indices and scorecards, calibrated more to project authority than to redistribute it. Terms such as “climate resilience,” “multi- stakeholder dialogue,” and “zero-carbon targets” crowd policy frameworks, their definitions stretched to the point where they attain the malleability of (2) _. Within this economy of signs, language abandons its capacity to illuminate and becomes instead a ritual of compliance. Policy declarations tip into euphemism; official statements are laden with procedural solemnity. Catastrophes are not acknowledged as such; they are (3) _ into ‘capacity-building opportunities.’ The vocabulary of human suffering is scrubbed clean, even as the underlying data remains stark. What surfaces is not candour, but a choreography of intent—an emotional staging of concern. In the meantime, knowledge hierarchies endure: indigenous ecological wisdom is (4) _ as “community-level insight,” afforded enough visibility to embellish, but never enough to redirect. Climate equity, once a challenge to power, now speaks in measured tones, absorbed efficiently into multilateral summit outcomes. Should environmental governance wish to transcend its culture of performance, it m ust release its grip on image management and engage honestly with its own liabilities. Anything less is not leadership—it is administrative (5) ___ posing as stewardship.

erosion

camouflage

pageantry

compliance

Question 81

Comprehension

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The seminary archivist carefully restored the breviarium found in the vestry.

The novice was asked to memorise passages from the breviarium.

A tattered breviarium lay open on the abbot's reading desk.

The technician calibrated the breviarium using voltmeters.

The bishop presented an ornate breviarium to the visiting clergy.

Question 82

Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Fear of confined spaces'.

Acrophobia

Claustrophobia

Hydrophobia

Agoraphobia

Question 83

Comprehension

Choose the most suitable option to replace the underlined part of the sentence: The elderly woman died by a sudden cardiac arrest.

was dead due to

died of

had died with

is dead from

Question 84

Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition: His refusal to acknowledge the audit findings was tantamount _____ a deliberate cover-up.

for

with

Question 85

Comprehension

Arrange the following sentences in the correct sequence to form a coherent passage. 1. These developments fundamentally altered the practice of modern medicine. 2. Alexander Fleming's identification of penicillin opened a new chapter in medical science. 3. For the first time, physicians had a reliable tool against life-threatening bacterial infections. 4. Diseases that had claimed millions of lives were now rendered manageable and treatable.

2-4-1-3

3-4-2-1

2-1-3-4

2-3-4-1

Question 86

Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: SENTIENT

Animate

Numb

Feeble

Conscious

Question 87

Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A place where coins are made'.

Kiln

Forge

Mint

Depot

Question 88

Comprehension

Change the following sentence from active to passive voice: Historians regarded the manuscript as a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence.

The manuscript was a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence.

Medieval jurisprudence was regarded as definitive in the manuscript.

A definitive record of medieval jurisprudence was regarded by historians in the manuscript.

The manuscript was regarded as a definitive record of medieval jurisprudence by histori

Question 89

Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Dissemble

Simulate

Reveal

Conceal

Falsify

Question 90

Comprehension

Select the correct spelling of a word meaning 'having a strong, regular beat'.

Rhytmic

Rhythmic

Rhythimic

Rythmic

Question 91

Comprehension

A sentence is provided in direct speech. Choose the option that most accurately represents it in indirect speech. Rita said, "Hurrah! We have won the tournament."

Rita exclaimed sadly that they had won the tournament.

Rita said that we have won the tournament.

Rita exclaimed with joy that they had won the tournament.

Rita said in joy that I have won the tournament.

Question 92

Comprehension

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. Choose the option that most accurately represents it in direct speech. The archaeologist stated that the artefacts were of pre-Harappan origin.

"The artefacts are of pre-Harappan origin," he stated.

The archaeologist said, "The artefacts are of pre-Harappan origin."

The archaeologist stated, "The artefacts were discovered recently."

"Pre-Harappan artefacts are rare," said the archaeologist.

Question 93

Comprehension

Arrange the following sentences in the correct sequence to form a coherent passage: 1. The Renaissance signalled a renewed engagement with ancient Greek and Roman thought. 2. Sculptors and painters broke from religious abstraction towards lifelike representation. 3. Wealthy merchant families and city-states became enthusiastic patrons of the arts. 4. Together, these forces transformed the cultural and philosophical foundations of Europe.

2-1-3-4

1-3-2-4

2-3-1-4

1-2-3-4

Question 94

Comprehension

Choose the most suitable option to replace the underlined part of the sentence: The police is searching the building for evidence.

are searching the building for evidence

searches the building

were searching for evidence the building

is in search

Question 95

Comprehension

Select the correct spelling of a word meaning 'undoubtedly true'.

Incontrovurtible

Incontrovartible

Incontrovatible

Incontrovertible

Question 96

Comprehension

Identify the part of the given sentence that has a grammatical error: Neither the principal nor the students (1)/ has completed (2)/ their assigned fieldwork (3)/ before the scheduled deadline. (4)/

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Question 97

Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The editor found the revised draft _____ verbose to be published without further cuts.

quite

very

too

Question 98

Comprehension

Rewrite the following sentence by changing it from passive voice to active voice: A certificate of merit will be awarded to all employees by the management next month.

The management had awarded a certificate of merit to all employees.

The management gives a certificate of merit to all employees.

The management will award a certificate of merit to all employees next month.

A certificate of merit was being awarded to all employees by the management.

Question 99

Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: To sup with the devil

To repent sincerely in private

To seek revenge against enemies

To deal with or associate with a dangerous or unscrupulous person

To enforce a rule without mercy

Question 100

Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Cook someone's goose

To rescue someone from defeat

To help someone gain an advantage

Ruin someone's plans or prospects

To embarrass someone publicly