SSC-CGL 2025 Questions

24 Sep 2025 • Shift 1

100 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

Find the missing number: 5, 15, 35, 75, ?

A
145
B
150
C
155
D
160
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Rs. 900 shared among 9 people. 3 back out. What's new share per person?

A
Rs. 150
B
Rs. 120
C
Rs. 180
D
Rs. 100
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

Find the missing term. 6, 12, 24, 30, 60, ?

A
66
B
72
C
90
D
120
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 72, 71, 74, 69, 76, ?

A
67
B
70
C
68
D
72
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'play with fire' is coded as 'ab, cd, ef', 'fire and water' is coded as 'ef, gh, ij ', 'play and rain' is coded as 'ab, gh, kl'. How will 'with rain play' be coded in the same language?

A
cd, kl, ab
B
cd, gh, ab
C
ef, kl, ab
D
cd, kl, ef
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

What comes next in the series? C, F, I, L, ?

A
M
B
N
C
O
D
P
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

Find the missing term. 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ?

A
28
B
29
C
30
D
31
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. House No. 45, Sector 12, Noida - 201301

A
House No. 45, Sector 12, Delhi - 201301
B
House No. 45, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
C
House No. 54, Sector 12, Noida - 201301
D
House No. 45, Sector 21, Noida - 201301
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

Statement: 1. All books are papers. 2. No paper is plastic. Conclusions: I. No book is plastic. II. Some plastics are books.

A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

What is the next number in the series? 4, 12, 36, 108, ?

A
216
B
324
C
432
D
540
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

Find the ODD one out from the given options.

A
225
B
256
C
196
D
210
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

Statement: 1. All birds are animals. 2. Some animals are wild. Conclusions: I. Some birds are wild. II. Some animals are birds.

A
Only I follows.
B
Only II follows.
C
Both I and II follow.
D
Neither I nor II follows.
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

The seminar in Jaipur happened 4 days before Bhopal. The seminar in Lucknow happened 3 days after Bhopal. If Jaipur's seminar was on 10 September, when was Lucknow's?

A
17 September
B
16 September
C
15 September
D
18 September
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

If "RAMA" is written as "TCOC", how will "SITA" be written?

A
UKVC
B
UJVC
C
UJWB
D
TJVC
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

A sum of money becomes Rs. 8800 after 2 years and Rs. 9680 after 3 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 16
Logical Reasoning

Find the WRONG term in the given series. 15, 46, 139, 419, 1255, 3766

A
419
B
1255
C
46
D
139
Question 17
Logical Reasoning

What comes next? AB, DE, GH, JK, ?

A
IJ
B
KL
C
MN
D
OP
Question 18
Logical Reasoning

A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change in the number?

A
No change
B
5% increase
C
5% decrease
D
1% decrease
Question 19
Logical Reasoning

If 92= 81 and 122= 144, then 112= ?

A
121
B
122
C
123
D
124
Question 20
Logical Reasoning

If 3:9 and 4:16, find 5:?

A
20
B
25
C
30
D
35
Question 21
Logical Reasoning

If SCHOOL is coded as TDIPPM, how is MARKET coded in the same code?

A
NBSLFU
B
NBSKFU
C
NARLFU
D
NBSLFV
Question 22
Logical Reasoning

From the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed from the letters used in the given word. DEDUCTION

A
Action
B
Tone
C
Done
D
Deduct
Question 23
Logical Reasoning

Replace special characters with mathematical signs as given in options to make it meaningful equation. 8 $ 4 # 2 = 16

A
×, +
B
÷, -
C
+, ×
D
-, ÷
Question 24
Logical Reasoning

Select the one that is different.

A
Keyboard
B
Mouse
C
Printer
D
Windows
Question 25
Logical Reasoning

Complete the series. 8, 27, 64, 125, ?

A
150
B
180
C
216
D
243
Question 26
GK

Consider the following about population growth in India: Statement-I: The population pyramid in India is broad at the base and top and narrow in the middle. Statement-II: India has a large proportion of young population due to high birth rates and declining death rates. Which one of the following is CORRECT in respect of the above statements?

A
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II incorrect
D
Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Question 27
GK

The primary focus of the Quad is in which region?

A
Europe
B
Africa
C
Indo-Pacific
D
South America
Question 28
GK

Which of the following works was composed by the Vijayanagara ruler Krishnadevaraya and is renowned for its poetic richness and devotion to Lord Vishnu?

A
Ramacharitam
B
Amuktamalyada
C
Gita Govinda
D
Manimekalai
Question 29
GK

The revolutionary Bagha Jatin (Jatindranath Mukherjee) was known for his valiant fight and for inspiring revolutionaries in which Indian state?

A
Punjab
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Bengal
D
Bihar
Question 30
GK

The "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM -KUSUM)" scheme has a focus on the energy sector within agriculture. What is the primary objective of this scheme?

A
To provide free electricity to all agricultural consumers
B
To promote the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides for higher yields
C
To encourage the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas
D
To improve the rural electricity grid infrastructure for better power supply
Question 31
GK

Which among the following is NOT a Vedanga, or the limbs of the Veda?

A
Kalpa
B
Vaisheshika
C
Vyakarana
D
Jyotisha
Question 32
GK

The Government of India Act of 1935 primarily aimed to:

A
Grant complete independence to India
B
Establish a Dominion status for India
C
Provide for a federal structure with provincial autonomy
D
Introduce universal adult suffrage
Question 33
GK

Which sport is the term "zugzwang" associated with?

A
Kabaddi
B
Chess
C
Shooting
D
Table Tennis
Question 34
GK

The color order in a secondary rainbow is:

A
Same as primary rainbow
B
Reversed compared to primary rainbow
C
Random and variable
D
Depends on humidity
Question 35
GK

Who is the 20th governor of Uttar Pradesh since 2019?

A
Anandiben Patel
B
Satya Pal Malik
C
Ram Naresh Yadav
D
Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Question 36
GK

Fill in the Blank: Thoda combines martial art with ______ in Himachal Pradesh.

A
Archery
B
Swordplay
C
Stick-fighting
D
Wrestling
Question 37
GK

Which of the following statements about Sir M. Visvesvaraya is correct?

A
He was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna
B
He was known for his role in India's hydroelectric projects
C
He designed the first Indian Rail budget model
D
He was a noted industrialist from pre-Independence India
Question 38
GK

What distinguishes ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission from other solar observatories?

A
It uses radar waves to study the Sun
B
It orbits the Sun directly
C
It will study the solar corona from Lagrange Point 1
D
It is placed in a lunar orbit
Question 39
GK

Which of the following statements about output markets in an open economy is correct?

A
A country can only produce what it consumes
B
Consumers are restricted to domestically produced goods
C
Trade in goods and services allows wider consumer and producer choice
D
Only producers benefit from international trade
Question 40
GK

The Planning Commission was established in which year?

A
1947
B
1949
C
1950
D
1952
Question 41
GK

Which of the given statements is/are CORRECT regarding solar power production? Solar power is a renewable energy source with low operational costs and minimal environmental impact. Kamuthi Solar Power Project is one of the largest single -location solar power plants in India, with a capacity of 648 MW.

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 42
GK

Which of the following is a cybercrime related to identity theft under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
Using public Wi-Fi to access online accounts
B
Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud
C
Downloading free music from unofficial websites
D
Posting harmless pictures on a social media profile
Question 43
GK

Fill in the blank: The final match of the 133rd Durand Cup, held between 26 July and 31 August 2024, featured Northeast United FC competing against ______.

A
Bengaluru FC
B
East Bengal FC
C
Mohun Bagan SG
D
FC Goa
Question 44
GK

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a key difference between the Mathura and Gandhara schools of art, as broadly understood in Indian architectural history?

A
Mathura art primarily used green phyllite, while Gandhara art used spotted red sandstone
B
Gandhara art developed on purely indigenous lines, whereas Mathura art showed foreign influences
C
Mathura art predominantly focused on Buddhist themes, while Gandhara focused on Hindu deities
D
Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, whereas Gandhara art reflected Hellenistic (Greco- Roman) features
Question 45
GK

The rock-cut Kailasa temple at Ellora was carved out of how many rocks?

A
One single rock
B
Cement blocks
C
Three adjoining rocks
D
A cluster of stones
Question 46
GK

Which Nigerian author received the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize for their "unflinching" exploration of identity, gender, and migration?

A
Teju Cole
B
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
C
Ben Okri
D
Tsitsi Dangarembga
Question 47
GK

Which of the following statements about India's National and Institutional Sports Competitions is/are correct? National Games began in 1924 at Lahore and were renamed from the IX Games in Bombay. SGFI holds nationals only for boys under 17 in contact sports like Wrestling and Kabaddi. Inter-University tournaments use knockout or league formats and allow one team per university.

A
Only 1 and 2 are Correct
B
Only 1 and 3 are Correct
C
Only 2 and 3 are correct
D
1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Question 48
GK

Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The 1991 reforms led to the opening of the Indian economy to foreign investors. Reason (R): The government wanted to increase domestic savings rate rapidly.

A
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true but R is false
D
A is false but R is true
Question 49
GK

The Index of Economic Freedom 2025 is published by which conservative think tank?

A
Cato Institute
B
Heritage Foundation
C
American Enterprise Institute
D
Brookings Institution
Question 50
GK

Which of the following is NOT a type of raga-based performance?

A
Thumri
B
Dhrupad
C
Prabandha
D
Sonata
Question 51
Arithmetic

In a quadrilateral ABCD, angles A, B, C are in the ratio 1:2:3. If angle D = 120°, what is angle A?

A
60°
B
64°
C
40°
D
50°
Question 52
Arithmetic

Simplify: √(7+4√3)

A
√3+2
B
2+√7
C
√3+√5
D
5+√3
Question 53
Arithmetic

A sum of ₹8000 is lent out in two parts, one at 5% simple interest and the other at 7% simple interest. If the annual interest is ₹500, the sum lent at 7% is:

A
₹3000
B
₹4000
C
₹4500
D
₹5000
Question 54
Arithmetic

Jayesh covers one-fourth of his journey at 20 km/h, another one -fourth at 10 km/h, and the rest at 70 km/h. What is his average speed?

A
18.25 km/h
B
22.4 km/h
C
16.35 km/h
D
15.55 km/h
Question 55
Arithmetic

A man observes the top of a pole with an angle of elevation of 45°. He walks 15 m towards the pole, and the angle of elevation becomes 60°. What is the height of the pole?

A
15(√3-1)m
B
15(3-√3)m
C
15(√3+1) 2 m
D
15(3+√3) 2 m
Question 56
Arithmetic

A rectangular tank measures 12 cm long, 10 cm wide, and 6 cm high. If a spherical ball of the largest possible size is placed inside this tank, what is the volume of the space not occupied by the ball?

A
(720-27л)сm³
B
(720-36л)сm³
C
(600-36л)сm³
D
(720-288л)cm³
Question 57
Arithmetic

A and B share profit in 7:5. If B gets Rs. 15,000, how much did A receive?

A
Rs. 21,000
B
Rs. 17,500
C
Rs. 19,000
D
Rs. 20,000
Question 58
Arithmetic

What is the ratio of the interior angle of a regular hexagon to the interior angle of a regular 12 -sided polygon (dodecagon)?

A
4:7
B
3:7
C
4:5
D
3:5
Question 59
Arithmetic

A man walks a square plot of area 121 m². If he walks once around its boundary, how far does he walk?

A
44 m
B
46 m
C
48 m
D
52 m
Question 60
Arithmetic

Two numbers are in the ratio 5:7. If 9 is added to each, the new ratio becomes 8:11. What are the original numbers?

A
135 and 189
B
150 and 210
C
120 and 168
D
180 and 252
Question 61
Arithmetic

A:B = 3:4, B:C = 6:7, C:D = 14:15. What is the ratio A:D?

A
3:5
B
9:16
C
7:20
D
9:25
Question 62
Arithmetic

A bag contains 20% red balls, 30% green balls and the rest blue balls. If there are 80 blue balls, what is the total number of balls?

A
100
B
160
C
200
D
240
Question 63
Arithmetic

A candidate attempted 75% of the questions in an exam. He got 80% of the attempted ones correct, and 10% of the unattempted ones were also awarded marks due to grace. If the total number of questions is 200, how many did he get right?

A
130
B
135
C
120
D
125
Question 64
Arithmetic

A trader gave a 20% discount on the market price but still earned a 10% profit. What percentage was the market price above the cost price?

A
25.5%
B
35%
C
37.5%
D
40%
Question 65
Arithmetic

A cricketer has played 8 innings with an average score of 40. In the next inning, he scores 80. What will be the new average?

A
40.44
B
46.44
C
44.44
D
48.44
Question 66
Arithmetic

A combo offer says, "Buy 2 shirts at Rs. 1200 each, get a third shirt free." What is the effective price per shirt?

A
Rs. 850
B
Rs. 800
C
Rs. 1000
D
Rs. 900
Question 67
Arithmetic

Two taps can fill a tub in 6 minutes and 4 minutes, respectively. A pipe can empty it in 3 minutes. If all the three are kept open simultaneously, when will the tub be full?

A
10 min
B
12 min
C
7 min
D
15 min
Question 68
Arithmetic

In a company, the average salary of 5 junior employees is Rs. 30,000, and that of 4 senior employees is Rs. 60,000. What is the combined average salary?

A
Rs. 30,333.33
B
Rs. 30,000.33
C
Rs. 33,333.33
D
Rs. 43,333.33
Question 69
Arithmetic

A container has a 100-litre mixture of acid and water in the ratio 4:1. 20 litres is removed and replaced with water . Then 20 litres is removed again and replaced with pure acid. What is the final percentage of acid?

A
76.8%
B
78.4%
C
81.6%
D
71.2%
Question 70
Arithmetic

If sec A = 13/12 and A is acute, find sin A.

A
5/13
B
12/13
C
5/12
D
13/5
Question 71
Arithmetic

Convert 2π/3 radians to degrees.

A
120°
B
90°
C
180°
D
60°
Question 72
Arithmetic

If A + B = 90° and tan A = 2, determine the value of tan A × tan B.

A
2
B
1
C
4
D
1/2
Question 73
Arithmetic

In a right-angled triangle, the Orthocenter lies at which of the following points?

A
The midpoint of the hypotenuse.
B
The vertex of the right angle.
C
A point on the hypotenuse but not the midpoint.
D
The midpoint of one of the legs.
Question 74
Arithmetic

A circle has a radius of 13 cm. A chord is drawn at a distance of 5 cm from the center . What is the length of the chord?

A
12 cm
B
13 cm
C
24 cm
D
26 cm
Question 75
Arithmetic

A tangent is drawn from a point 17 cm from the center of a circle of radius 8 cm. Find the length of the tangent.

A
12 cm
B
15 cm
C
13 cm
D
10 cm
Question 76
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word. The auditor's report revealed only a ________ examination of the company's financial records.

A
supperficial
B
superficiall
C
supurficiel
D
superficial
Question 77
Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who insists on strict adherence to rules'.

A
Despot
B
Martinet
C
Pedant
D
Zealot
Question 78
Comprehension

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The allegation that the records had been falsified was reported as unsubstantiated.

A
The records falsified the allegation, which was reported.
B
The reporting of the records' falsification was alleged.
C
It was reported as unsubstantiated that the records were falsified.
D
Investigators reported the allegation that someone had falsified the records as unsubstantiated.
Question 79
Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Cut the Gordian knot

A
To complicate a straightforward matter unnecessarily
B
To postpone an inevitable confrontation
C
To seek counsel from multiple advisors before deciding
D
To resolve a difficult problem by bold, decisive action
Question 80
Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Deliberate breach of faith or betrayal of trust'.

A
Mendacity
B
Turpitude
C
Perfidy
D
Treachery
Question 81
Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Harp on the same string

A
To switch topics abruptly during a discussion
B
To speak evasively about a sensitive issue
C
To change one's stance under external pressure
D
To dwell on the same subject repeatedly and tediously
Question 82
Comprehension

Select the correct option for the Direct Speech conversion of the sentence below. The biologist remarked that genetic mutations could be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure.

A
The biologist said, "Genetic mutations can be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure."
B
She remarked, "If radiation is prolonged, genetic mutations will be accelerated."
C
The biologist said, "Genetic mutations could be accelerated by prolonged radiation exposure."
D
She said, "Genetic mutations accelerate when radiation exposure is prolonged."
Question 83
Comprehension

Choose the correctly spelt word meaning of the theory that all knowledge comes from sensory experience.

A
Empirisism
B
Empiricizm
C
Empiricism
D
Empericizm
Question 84
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Incipient

A
Embryonic
B
Rudimentary
C
Germinal
D
Mature
Question 85
Comprehension

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Despite the warning signs, (1)/ the project lead had failed recognising (2)/ the critical flaws in the initial design (3)/ before the prototype was approved. (4)

A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Question 86
Comprehension

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The conductor praised the rich bass resonance of the choir's lower section.

A
The angler pulled a striped bass from the cold river at dawn.
B
The bass line in the symphony was composed by Brahms.
C
She turned up the bass on the equaliser for a fuller sound.
D
The bass drum set the tempo for the entire orchestra.
Question 87
Comprehension

Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. 1. Clinical trials assess safety and efficacy before regulatory bodies grant approval. 2. Vaccine development begins with identifying antigens that trigger an immune response. 3. Once approved, mass immunisation campaigns aim to achieve herd immunity. 4. Ongoing surveillance monitors for adverse effects and emerging pathogen variants.

A
2-3-1-4
B
2-4-1-3
C
4-1-2-3
D
2-1-3-4
Question 88
Comprehension

Spot the correct spelling of a sound-imitative word class.

A
Onomatopoeya
B
Onomatopoeia
C
Onnomatopoeia
D
Onomatopeia
Question 89
Comprehension

Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This makes solar power an increasingly cost-competitive alternative to fossil fuels. 2. Solar energy harnesses sunlight through photovoltaic cells to generate electricity. 3. Technological advances have significantly reduced the cost of manufacturing solar panels. 4. Widespread adoption, however, requires improvements in energy storage and grid integration.

A
2, 3, 1, 4
B
3, 1, 4, 2
C
1, 2, 4, 3
D
4, 2, 3, 1
Question 90
Comprehension

Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage: 1. Regular reading strengthens vocabulary, analytical thinking, and empathy. 2. Despite the rise of digital media, the habit of reading remains indispensable. 3. Reading literary fiction, in particular, has been shown to enhance theory of mind. 4. Cultivating a reading culture therefore demands deliberate effort from both educators and policymakers.

A
2-1-3-4
B
3-1-4-2
C
1-3-2-4
D
4-2-1-3
Question 91
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the appropriate article. ____ epic tragedy 'Paradise Lost' by ____ celebrated poet John Milton.

A
The, the
B
An, the
C
An, a
D
A, the
Question 92
Comprehension

Change the following from active to passive: The engineers may have been overlooking certain critical safety protocols.

A
Certain critical safety protocols may have been overlooked by the engineers.
B
Certain critical safety protocols may be being overlooked by the engineers.
C
Certain critical safety protocols may have been being overlooked by the engineers.
D
Certain critical safety protocols may had been being overlooked by the engineers.
Question 93
Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: At sea

A
Navigating a situation skillfully
B
Acting recklessly without regard for consequences
C
Seeking an adventurous escape from routine
D
Feeling confused or perplexed
Question 94
Comprehension

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said to him, "Have you submitted the quarterly report?"

A
She asked him had he submitted the quarterly report.
B
She asked him whether he has submitted the quarterly report.
C
She asked him whether he had submitted the quarterly report.
D
She said him that he had submitted the quarterly report.
Question 95
Comprehension

Which of the following is the correct tense used in the sentence: "Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline."? Read the passage and answer the questions: The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making, and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt. At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non- REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be compensated by mere wakefulness. Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.

A
Simple Past
B
Present Perfect Passive
C
Future Continuous
D
Past Perfect Continuous
Question 96
Comprehension

Identify the grammatical function of the phrase "Beyond the well-documented effects on alertness and reaction time" in the first paragraph. Read the passage and answer the questions: The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making, and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt. At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non- REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be compensated by mere wakefulness. Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.

A
A noun clause functioning as the main subject of the sentence.
B
A relative clause modifying the noun 'evidence'.
C
An introductory prepositional phrase modifying the main clause.
D
A direct object of the verb 'suggested'.
Question 97
Comprehension

What is the meaning of the word "imperceptibly" as used in the passage? Read the passage and answer the questions: The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making, and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt. At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non- REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be compensated by mere wakefulness. Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.

A
Rapidly and measurably
B
Predictably and systematically
C
In a manner too gradual to be noticed
D
Openly and with full awareness
Question 98
Comprehension

The word "valorise" most nearly means: Read the passage and answer the questions: The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making, and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt. At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non- REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be compensated by mere wakefulness. Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.

A
Condemn
B
Elevate in status or worth
C
Ignore
D
Estimate at a low rate
Question 99
Comprehension

According to the passage, what makes prolonged sleep debt particularly treacherous? Read the passage and answer the questions: The relationship between sleep and cognitive performance has become a focal point of neurological research, with mounting evidence suggesting that sleep deprivation exerts a far more pervasive influence on mental functioning than previously acknowledged. B eyond the well -documented effects on alertness and reaction time, chronic sleep insufficiency has been shown to impair higher-order executive functions, including working memory, decision-making, and the capacity for abstract reasoning. These impairments d o not manifest as sudden breakdowns but instead accumulate imperceptibly over time, rendering individuals progressively less capable without their awareness —a particularly treacherous dimension of prolonged sleep debt. At the neurological level, sleep serves as a critical period of cellular restoration and synaptic consolidation. During non- REM sleep, the glymphatic system actively clears metabolic waste products from the brain, including amyloid -beta proteins associated with neurodegenerative conditions. Disruption of this process through habitual short sleep has been tentatively linked to elevated long -term risk of cognitive decline. Simultaneously, REM sleep is integral to emotional regulation and the consolidation of procedural and declarative memory —processes that cannot be compensated by mere wakefulness. Despite the compelling scientific consensus surrounding sleep's restorative function, modern professional culture continues to valorise overwork and dismiss sleep as a concession to weakness. Addressing this cultural inertia requires not only individual be havioural change but also systemic institutional reform: workplaces must actively discourage practices that incentivise sleep deprivation, while public health campaigns should endeavour to reframe adequate sleep as a cornerstone of productivity and cognitive wellbeing rather than a sign of insufficient ambition.

A
It causes immediate and catastrophic neurological failure.
B
Individuals become progressively less capable without realising it.
C
It permanently destroys the glymphatic system.
D
It prevents all forms of memory consolidation within a single night.
Question 100
Comprehension

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She behaves as if she was owning the entire department.

A
as if she owns the entire department
B
as though she owned the entire department
C
as if she is owning the entire department
D
as she owns the entire department