SSC-CGL 2025 Questions

25 Sep 2025 • Shift 1

100 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

Find the missing number: 8 : 64 :: 7 : ?

A
49
B
42
C
56
D
36
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. Sample Address: 45-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301

A
45C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
B
45-C, Green Valley Home, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
C
45-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
D
54-C, Green Valley Homes, Sector 9, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201301
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

The seminar in Vijayawada occurred 4 days before Nellore, while Tirupati was 2 days after Nellore. If Tirupati's seminar was on 20 March, when did the Vijayawada seminar happen?

A
14 March
B
15 March
C
16 March
D
17 March
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

If "RAMESH" is coded as "SZNDTG", what is the code for "SURESH"?

A
TTQBTG
B
UTSDTG
C
TTSDTG
D
TVSDTG
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

In a code language, "Ram is smart" is coded as "la pa ta", "Ram is tall" is coded as "la pa ka", "Sita is smart" is coded as "ma pa ta". What is the code for "Sita is tall"?

A
ma pa ka
B
la ma ka
C
pa ka ta
D
na pa ka
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

What should come at the place of question mark? 120, 110, 100, 90, ?, 70

A
80
B
85
C
75
D
95
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

If in a certain code, 'EAST' is written as 'TSAE', how will 'ASTE' be written?

A
ETSA
B
EAST
C
TSAE
D
STAE
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

If you multiply the first four natural numbers, what do you get?

A
24
B
20
C
16
D
32
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

A bus travels a distance of 240 km in 4 hours. If the bus increases its speed by 20 km/h, how much time will it take to cover the same distance?

A
3 h
B
2.5 h
C
3.5 h
D
4 h
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

A is the wife of B. C is the son of A. How is B related to C?

A
Mother
B
Father
C
Grandfather
D
Brother
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

If 73= 343, then 83= ?

A
512
B
486
C
576
D
256
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: 1. Some teachers are kind. 2. All kind people are respected. Conclusions: I. Some teachers are respected. II. All teachers are respected.

A
Only I follows
B
Only II follows
C
Both I and II follow
D
Neither I nor II follows
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

Complete the series. 3, 8, 15, 24, ?

A
32
B
35
C
36
D
40
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series? 60, 55, 65, ?, 70, 45

A
50
B
85
C
75
D
90
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

Which word does NOT belong to the group based on meaning? PEN, PENCIL, ERASER, BOOK, TIGER

A
PEN
B
PENCIL
C
BOOK
D
TIGER
Question 16
Logical Reasoning

Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: 1. All cars are vehicles. 2. Some vehicles are bikes. 3. No bike is a truck. Conclusions: I. Some cars are not trucks. II. All bikes are vehicles.

A
Only I follows.
B
Only II follows.
C
Both I and II follow.
D
Neither I nor II follows.
Question 17
Logical Reasoning

If 5 books cost ₹150, how many books can you buy for ₹300?

A
8
B
10
C
12
D
15
Question 18
Logical Reasoning

If * = +, @ = -, # = ×; then 6 # 2 * 3 @ 4 = ?

A
11
B
14
C
17
D
10
Question 19
Logical Reasoning

If in a certain language, 'MARKET' is written as 'LZQJDS', how is 'PLANET' written in that code?

A
OKZMDS
B
OKXMDS
C
OKYMDS
D
OKZMDR
Question 20
Logical Reasoning

Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions is/are definitely TRUE from the statement. Statement: 1. All fruits are healthy. 2. Some healthy things are vegetables. Conclusion: I. Some fruits are vegetables. II. Some vegetables are healthy.

A
Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are TRUE.
B
Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is TRUE.
C
Only Conclusion II is TRUE.
D
Only Conclusion I is TRUE.
Question 21
Logical Reasoning

Which city is different?

A
Bhopal
B
Indore
C
Nagpur
D
Ujjain
Question 22
Logical Reasoning

What comes next? AB, CD, EF, ?

A
GH
B
GI
C
HF
D
IJ
Question 23
Logical Reasoning

Find the ODD one out. Mumbai, Kolkata, Pune, Chennai, Delhi

A
Mumbai
B
Pune
C
Chennai
D
Delhi
Question 24
Logical Reasoning

In the word "BIOLOGY", what is the alphabetical index of the 3rd letter from the right?

A
25
B
15
C
12
D
7
Question 25
Logical Reasoning

If POWER is coded as QPXFS, how is QPXFS coded?

A
SQYGT
B
RQYGU
C
RPYGT
D
RQYGT
Question 26
GK

Read the following statements and mark the correct option: Assertion (A): Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa Rebellion against the British. Reason (R): He protested against the forest laws that restricted tribal access to resources.

A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true, but R is false.
D
A is false, but R is true.
Question 27
GK

The economic policy reforms of 1991 are popularly known as:

A
Five-Year Plan
B
New Fiscal Policy
C
New Economic Policy
D
Economic Reconstruction Plan
Question 28
GK

Each Mandala of the Rigveda is further subdivided into ___.

A
Suktas
B
Kandas
C
Puranas
D
Samhitas
Question 29
GK

After the death of Shivaji, which group came to hold effective political power in the Maratha state?

A
Mughals
B
Deshmukhs
C
Kunbis
D
Chitpavan Brahmanas
Question 30
GK

Tippani is a traditional folk dance performed mainly by women in which Indian state?

A
Rajasthan
B
Gujarat
C
Maharashtra
D
Punjab
Question 31
GK

In the book Fraternity: Constitutional Norm and Human Need, what is the central theme explored by the author?

A
The economic inequality caused by globalization
B
The legal history of the Indian Constitution
C
The idea of fraternity as a binding force in democracy
D
The role of federalism in India's political system
Question 32
GK

Which of the following statements accurately describes the law of demand in microeconomics?

A
As price increases, demand increases.
B
As price decreases, demand decreases.
C
As price increases, demand decreases, ceteris paribus.
D
Price has no effect on demand.
Question 33
GK

Carefully read the following two statements and pick the most appropriate option: Assertion (A): The government's revenue receipts don't bring with them any burden of repayment or financial liability. Reason (R): These earnings aren't meant to be returned and generally come from either tax-related sources or other regular inflows.

A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
A is false, but R is true
Question 34
GK

Which of the following Buddhist Councils and their locations are correctly matched?

A
First Buddhist Council - Rajagriha
B
Second Buddhist Council - Lumbini
C
Third Buddhist Council - Kashmir
D
Fourth Buddhist Council - Pataliputra
Question 35
GK

Which act introduced the system of dyarchy (dual government) in the provinces of British India?

A
The Indian Councils Act of 1861
B
The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909
C
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
D
The Government of India Act of 1935
Question 36
GK

Which of the following statements about scoring and penalties in field hockey is/are correct? 1) A field goal is valid only if played from inside the shooting circle. 2) In a penalty corner, the ball must exit and re -enter the circle before a goal. 3) A penalty stroke may be lifted to any height if pushed or flicked.

A
Only 1 and 2 are Correct
B
Only 2 and 3 are Correct
C
Only 1 and 3 are correct
D
1, 2 and 3 are Correct
Question 37
GK

Which entity/entities publish the Climate Change Performance Index 2025?

A
UNEP
B
IPCC
C
Germanwatch & NewClimate Institute
D
WWF
Question 38
GK

Who is known as the architect of India's Five-Year Plans?

A
Sardar Patel
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
B.R. Ambedkar
D
P .C. Mahalanobis
Question 39
GK

The Taj Mahal was inspired by which famous monument?

A
Humayun's Tomb
B
Jama Masjid
C
Victoria Memorial
D
Qutub Minar
Question 40
GK

How does a concave mirror form an image when an object is located at its center of curvature?

A
Real, inverted, and diminished
B
Real, inverted, and same size
C
Virtual, erect, and magnified
D
Real, erect, and diminished
Question 41
GK

According to Mahalanobis strategy, growth should primarily be driven by investment in:

A
Agricultural inputs
B
Consumer goods sector
C
Capital goods sector
D
Import-led services sector
Question 42
GK

In BNSS, what provision strengthens witness protection during trial?

A
Anonymous jury system
B
Use of video conferencing and identity concealment for vulnerable witnesses
C
Witnesses can choose to record statements via SMS
D
Witnesses are not required to attend trial
Question 43
GK

In Madhya Pradesh, the unmarried girls place lamps inside a decorated earthen pot called ___ during Gangaur .

A
Kalash
B
Ghudlia
C
Matki
D
Deepdan
Question 44
GK

Which of the following accurately describes the legal and institutional basis of "Special Category State" status in India?

A
It is a constitutional provision granted under Article 275.
B
It is defined in the Constitution and recommended by the Inter-State Council.
C
It is not mentioned in the Constitution and was granted by the National Development Council.
D
It is conferred by the Finance Commission under Article 280.
Question 45
GK

Who is the author of the book 'Why I am a Hindu'?

A
Pavan K. Varma
B
Shashi Tharoor
C
Aravind Adiga
D
Gurcharan Das
Question 46
GK

Which of the following statements about the Indian Super League (ISL) is correct regarding its inaugural match in 2014?

A
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Mumbai.
B
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Goa.
C
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Kolkata.
D
The first ISL match in 2014 was held in Delhi.
Question 47
GK

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Gandhara images frequently feature halo and curly hair . Reasoning (R): These elements symbolise Graeco -Roman influence in North-West India.

A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is true, but R is false.
D
A is false, but R is true.
Question 48
GK

Which of the following describes the role of Aruna Asaf Ali in Indian history?

A
She was elected as India's first female judge.
B
She hoisted the Indian flag during the Quit India Movement.
C
She led a military regiment during the 1857 revolt.
D
She participated in drafting the Constitution.
Question 49
GK

Which of the following correctly identifies India's first Paralympic medallist and his achievement?

A
Devendra Jhajharia - Gold, javelin throw, Athens 1975
B
Murlikant Petkar - Gold, men's 50m freestyle, Heidelberg 1972
C
Mariyappan Thangavelu - Gold, high jump, Rio 1973
D
Avani Lekhara - Gold, air rifle, Tokyo 1976
Question 50
GK

Which category of prohibited substances in sports includes drugs that increase alertness and reduce fatigue?

A
Anabolic Agents
B
Peptide Hormones
C
Beta-2 Agonists
D
Stimulants
Question 51
Arithmetic

The radii of three concentric circles are in arithmetic progression. If the innermost radius is 7 cm and the outermost is 21 cm, what is the radius of the middle circle?

A
12 cm
B
11 cm
C
10 cm
D
14 cm
Question 52
Arithmetic

What is the area of the segment formed by a chord in a circle of radius 6 cm, if the angle subtended at the center is 120°?

A
12𝜋 − 9√3
B
12𝜋 − 18√3
C
36𝜋 − 9√3
D
12𝜋 − 9
Question 53
Arithmetic

A building has 4 square pyramidal turrets, each of base 4 m and height 6 m. If each need 1.25 times volume for structural fill, find total fill needed.

A
160m3
B
260m3
C
280m3
D
180m3
Question 54
Arithmetic

If sin⁡ 𝐴 = cos⁡ 𝐵 and both A and B are acute, what is A + B?

A
60°
B
90°
C
120°
D
180°
Question 55
Arithmetic

Simplify: √3(√12 − √27)

A
-3
B
4
C
-5
D
6
Question 56
Arithmetic

The average score of a batsman in 20 innings is 42. If his highest score of 120 is excluded, what is the new average?

A
37.89
B
38.89
C
39.89
D
36.89
Question 57
Arithmetic

If a chord subtends an angle of 75° at the center, the angle it subtends at the circumference on the same side is:

A
35°
B
37.5°
C
45°
D
60°
Question 58
Arithmetic

If cot⁡ 𝐴 = 3 and A is acute, then find sin 𝐴

A
√10 10
B
√10 5
C
√10 9
D
√9 10
Question 59
Arithmetic

If sin⁡ 𝐴 = 3 5 then what is sin⁡2 𝐴 + cos⁡2 𝐴 − 2sin⁡ 𝐴cos⁡ 𝐴?

A
1
B
0
C
1 25
D
1 5
Question 60
Arithmetic

A 30-litre container of pure milk undergoes a 6-litre removal and 6-litre water replacement process, repeated 4 times. Approximately how much original milk remains?

A
15 78 125 litres
B
17 28 255 litres
C
12 36 125 litres
D
15 68 255 litres
Question 61
Arithmetic

The time taken to cover 132 km by car is 1 hour . Find the time taken to cover 88 km by car .

A
45 min
B
38 min
C
42 min
D
40 min
Question 62
Arithmetic

A certain sum amounts to Rs. 1,600 in two years and to Rs. 2,000 in three years at compound interest when compounded annually. Find the rate of interest.

A
21%
B
19%
C
25%
D
20%
Question 63
Arithmetic

A donor deposits ₹8,00,000 in a trust that earns 10% simple interest annually. The interest is used to distribute three annual awards. If the second and third awards are ₹35,000 and ₹20,000 respectively, what is the value of the first award?

A
25,000
B
30,000
C
35,000
D
45,000
Question 64
Arithmetic

The surface area of a cuboid is 468cm2, and its dimensions are in the ratio 2:3:4. Find its volume.

A
480cm3
B
648cm3
C
512cm3
D
528cm3
Question 65
Arithmetic

Instructions: Evaluate the following statements to determine if the information provided is sufficient to answer the question. Question: If P , Q, and R work together, how many days will they take to complete a project? Statement I: Q and R together can complete the project in 10 days. Statement II: P and R together can complete the project in 15 days.

A
Statement I alone provides enough information to answer the question, but Statement II alone does not.
B
Statement II alone provides enough information to answer the question, but Statement I alone does not.
C
Both Statement I and Statement II combined are needed to answer the question, as neither statement on its own is sufficient.
D
Even when combined, the information in both Statement I and Statement II is not enough to
Question 66
Arithmetic

Solve: (√7921 − √2070.25) × ( 1 4)

A
10.875
B
8.875
C
7.785
D
6.685
Question 67
Arithmetic

A man spends 70% of his income. His income increases by 10% and his expenditure by 5%. What is the percentage increase in his savings?

A
21.67%
B
31.67%
C
41.67%
D
51.67%
Question 68
Arithmetic

A right triangular prism has a base area of 24cm2 and height 10 cm. What is its volume?

A
120cm3
B
240cm3
C
480cm3
D
360cm3
Question 69
Arithmetic

If the height of a cylinder is equal to its diameter and radius is 5 cm, find its volume.

A
125cm3
B
250𝜋cm3
C
500𝜋cm3
D
625𝜋cm3
Question 70
Arithmetic

The measures of the interior angles of a pentagon are x, x+10, x+20, x+30 and x+40, What is the measure of the smallest angle?

A
88°
B
98°
C
108°
D
118°
Question 71
Arithmetic

Convert 3 radians to degrees.

A
171.89°
B
240°
C
360.46°
D
540°
Question 72
Arithmetic

If the price tag of a microwave is Rs. 5000 and the shopkeeper offers a discount of 18%, what is the selling price?

A
Rs. 4100
B
Rs. 4200
C
Rs. 4300
D
Rs. 4500
Question 73
Arithmetic

In triangle ABC, an altitude AD is drawn from point A to side BC. Given the coordinates A(1, 5), B(2, 1), and C(6, 3), what is the slope of the line representing altitude AD?

A
2
B
-2
C
− 1 2
D
1 2
Question 74
Arithmetic

Triangle PQR has vertices P(1, 1), Q(4, 1), and R(1, 5). Triangle STU has vertices S(6, 2), T(9, 2), and U(6, 6). Are these two triangles congruent?

A
Yes, by SSS
B
Yes, by SAS
C
Yes, by ASA
D
No, they are not congruent
Question 75
Arithmetic

A can complete a task in 15 days, and B can complete the same task in 20 days. How long will it take them to complete the task together?

A
5.5 days
B
6.5 days
C
7.5 days
D
8.5 days
Question 76
Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who lives in solitude and seclusion.'

A
Renegade
B
Patriot
C
Mystic
D
Recluse
Question 77
Comprehension

Choose the correct word for blank (1). In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage. The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law. Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world where basic human needs remain unmet for millions. Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.

A
is
B
was
C
has been
D
had been
Question 78
Comprehension

Choose the correct word for blank (2). In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage. The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law. Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world where basic human needs remain unmet for millions. Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.

A
becoming
B
had become
C
have become
D
to become
Question 79
Comprehension

Choose correct conditional mood. (3) In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage. The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law. Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world where basic human needs remain unmet for millions. Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but whether that future is marked by expansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.

A
benefiting
B
benefit
C
benefits
D
have benefiting
Question 80
Comprehension

The word "nascent" (4) most nearly means: In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage. The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law. Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world where basic human needs remain unmet for millions. Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.

A
Well-established
B
Primitive or newly developing
C
Deliberately hidden
D
Declining rapidly
Question 81
Comprehension

. The word "tempering" most nearly means: (5) In the following question, a sentence with a blank is given, followed by five words labeled (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5). Choose the word that fills the blank appropriately in the context of the passage. The pursuit of space exploration (1) ___ not merely an extension of scientific curiosity but a profound statement about humanity's aspirations and existential resilience. As Earth's resources dwindle and environmental degradation escalates the imperative t o seek alternative habitats is (2) ___ increasingly unavoidable. Beyond the immediate technological marvels, space missions foster unprecedented advancements in materials science, medicine, and artificial intelligence, all of which invariably (3) ___civilian life on Earth. However, venturing into the cosmos is fraught with ethical dilemmas. Questions surrounding planetary protection —ensuring that alien ecosystems are neither contaminated nor exploited, remain largely (4) nascent within international law. Moreover, the colossal costs of space programs provoke debates about distributive justice, particularly in a world where basic human needs remain unmet for millions. Thus, a responsible trajectory of space exploration must harmonize ambition with stewardship, (5) tempering technological triumphalism with humility. Ultimately, the future of humanity may indeed lie among the stars, but whether that future is marked by ex pansionist hubris or enlightened coexistence will depend on the philosophical frameworks we choose to uphold in these uncharted domains.

A
Accelerating aggressively
B
Reducing or moderating
C
Ignoring completely
D
Glorifying excessively
Question 82
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word. The _______ theory revolutionized the field of anthropology.

A
evoluttionary
B
evolutionary
C
evolusionary
D
evvolutionary
Question 83
Comprehension

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She did not spoke to anyone.

A
did spoke
B
spoken
C
did not speak
D
was not speaking
Question 84
Comprehension

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An exact copy'.

A
Replication
B
Manuscript
C
Model
D
Facsimile
Question 85
Comprehension

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The symposium on autonomous systems (1)/ underscored an urgent need of robust ethical frameworks (2)/ to anticipate unforeseen consequences (3)/ of machine decision-making. (4)/

A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Question 86
Comprehension

Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Only after the final audit report was submitted (1)/ did the committee realise (2)/ that the estimates, although well - documented, (3)/ has omitted indirect liabilities. (4)

A
(1)
B
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
Question 87
Comprehension

Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. 1. Regular check-ups are essential to detect issues early. 2. Maintaining good dental hygiene is crucial. 3. It prevents cavities, gum disease, and other oral problems. 4. Brushing and flossing daily form the core of this practice.

A
2-1-3-4
B
2-4-1-3
C
3-4-2-1
D
2-3-4-1
Question 88
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Torpor

A
Stupor
B
Liveliness
C
Sluggishness
D
Inertia
Question 89
Comprehension

Choose the correct spelling for a word meaning 'opposite in nature'.

A
Contrary
B
Countrary
C
Contrery
D
Contreryy
Question 90
Comprehension

Change the following from active to passive: Someone had left the emergency exit unlocked overnight.

A
The emergency exit had been left unlocked overnight.
B
The emergency exit was being left unlocked overnight.
C
The emergency exit had to be left unlocked overnight.
D
The emergency exit has been left unlocked overnight.
Question 91
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PHLEGMATIC

A
Calm
B
Excitable
C
Agitated
D
Emotional
Question 92
Comprehension

Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful passage: 1. Marine ecosystems are sensitive to temperature shifts. 2. Coral bleaching is one visible consequence. 3. Rising ocean temperatures disrupt symbiotic algae. 4. This affects reef biodiversity and fisheries.

A
3-2-1-4
B
2-3-1-4
C
1-3-2-4
D
1-2-4-3
Question 93
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the appropriate collocation: She has a strong _____ of responsibility.

A
idea
B
belief
C
sense
D
view
Question 94
Comprehension

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The child cried as if he was in pain.

A
as though he is in pain
B
as if he were in pain
C
like he was in pain
D
as he was in pain
Question 95
Comprehension

A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. The teacher said, "Who can solve this question?"

A
The teacher asked who could solve that question.
B
The teacher asked who can solve that question.
C
The teacher said who could solve this question.
D
The teacher asked to solve that question.
Question 96
Comprehension

Select the correct option: The manuscript was replete with obscure references, many of ________ baffled reviewers.

A
whom
B
which
C
them
D
those
Question 97
Comprehension

Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The cleric described the tonsure as a sacred act.

A
The friar received his tonsure before initiation.
B
The biologist found a tonsure on the frog's dorsal fin.
C
The medieval tonsure was symbolic of humility.
D
The monk's tonsure marked him as a Benedictine.
Question 98
Comprehension

Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It had been made clear by the committee that the rule would not be altered.

A
The committee made it clear that the rule would not be altered.
B
The rule was made clear not to be altered by the committee.
C
The rule alteration was clarified by the committee.
D
The committee had altered the rule as made clear .
Question 99
Comprehension

A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The director noted that the figures had been inflated.

A
The director said, "These figures have been inflated."
B
The director said, "The figures are inflated."
C
The director said, "The figures were exaggerated."
D
The director said, "They inflated the figures."
Question 100
Comprehension

Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Red herring

A
A minor distraction
B
A false clue meant to mislead
C
A sign of danger
D
A contradictory statement