SSC-CHSL 2017 Questions

17 Mar 2018 • Shift 1

98 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
megalomaniac
B
megalomeniac
C
megallomaniac
D
megallomeniac
Question 2
Comprehension

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. A lever enabled you A-controlled the burner flame B-to raise or lower the wicks C-and this is how you

A
BAC
B
ACB
C
BCA
D
ABC
Question 3
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". By then running water and electricity (had arrive), making the well and the lamp post redundant.

A
had arriving
B
had arrived
C
arriving
D
no improvement
Question 4
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". This stove (had) a flat kerosene tank at the bottom.

A
have
B
have had
C
has had
D
no improvement
Question 5
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Revel in and make the most of something pleasing

A
Abhor
B
Bask
C
Fret
D
Edgy
Question 6
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Acutely distressing

A
Palatable
B
Harrowing
C
Gratifying
D
Suave
Question 7
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. In cahoots with

A
A marriage made in heaven.
B
A group of criminals.
C
With lot of determination.
D
In an alliance or partnership with.
Question 8
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Back to the drawing board

A
A creative person will always find a solution to any problem.
B
An artist will express his feelings by drawing.
C
It is better to work on a fanciful idea bound to fail than have no ideas at all.
D
Used to indicate that an idea has been unsuccessful and that a new one must be devised.
Question 9
Comprehension

much about the ____________ of the sun

A
brightness
B
bright
C
brightly
D
brighter
Question 10
Comprehension

from time _________ time, one

A
to
B
at
C
so
D
is
Question 11
Comprehension

But aside __________ the mental trauma

A
from
B
form
C
of
D
for
Question 12
Comprehension

years of ostentatious ___________ society is a simple

A
humanity
B
humanly
C
humanely
D
human
Question 13
Comprehension

The ___________ conversation-starter cultivated

A
basic
B
base
C
basically
D
basics
Question 14
Comprehension

In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
Acquaintance
B
Acuainatance
C
Acquaintence
D
Akquaintance
Question 15
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. She said, “Let us wait for the seat”

A
She proposed that they should wait for the seat.
B
She proposed that they could wait for the seat.
C
She proposed to wait for the seat.
D
She proposed let us wait for seat.
Question 16
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. One can achieve reward by hard work.

A
Reward could be achieved by hard work.
B
Reward is needed for hard work.
C
Reward is achieved by hard work.
D
Reward can be achieved by hard work.
Question 17
Comprehension

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. The invention of the turbine by P: the beginning of jet transport Q: Ohain in Germany in 1939 signalled R: Frank Whittle in England and Hans von

A
QRP
B
RQP
C
PQR
D
RPQ
Question 18
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Wholesome

A
Impure
B
Healthy
C
Pure
D
Safe
Question 19
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Inundate

A
Engulf
B
Immerse
C
Overrun
D
Underwhelm
Question 20
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Accede

A
Admit
B
Submit
C
Grown
D
Consent
Question 21
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Hackneyed

A
Tired
B
Fresh
C
Uncommon
D
New
Question 22
Comprehension

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. He won’t pay the rent ______ how many times his landlord berates him.

A
seeing as
B
however
C
although
D
no matter
Question 23
Comprehension

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. Anita ______ her work by the time he came.

A
had done
B
has done
C
is done
D
would done
Question 24
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. Proteins are providers of energy in an emergency, (1)/ and are primarily used as building blocking (2)/ for growth and repair of many body tissues. (3)/ No error (4)

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 25
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. He cooked (A)/ dinner and (B)/ than turned the radio on. (C)/ No error (D)

A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives. Shout : Speak :: ? : ?

A
Petrol : Fuel
B
Rage : Anger
C
Drown : Water
D
Famous : People
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 46 : 48 :: 61 : ?

A
67
B
71
C
65
D
63
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives. VOT : SLQ :: HRX : ?

A
EMS
B
KOC
C
EOU
D
RVH
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

A
Car – Road
B
Water – Ship
C
Track – Train
D
Sky – Aeroplane
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number of the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A
12 – 24
B
14 – 28
C
44 – 88
D
33 – 88
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A
LFZ
B
PJC
C
SMG
D
XRL
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Lighten 2. Liftoff 3. Lemonade 4. Leisure 5. Ladies

A
32451
B
21345
C
13245
D
54321
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 23, 24, 26, 27, 29, ?

A
31
B
30
C
33
D
32
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. PCM, REO, TGQ, VIS, ?

A
XKU
B
WLV
C
XLV
D
WKU
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

The ratio of the present ages of Reena and her husband is 4 : 5. 8 years from now, the ages of her husband and her son will be in the ratio 24 : 9. If the present age of Reena is 32 years, then what will be her son’s present age (in years)?

A
12
B
15
C
10
D
8
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word. Preparation

A
Paper
B
Ration
C
Part
D
People
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, “PROP” is written as “67” and “RATE” is written as “46”. How is “MOCK” written in that code language?

A
41
B
40
C
42
D
44
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, '–' represents ' × ', '÷' represents ' + ', ' + ' represents '÷' and ' × ' represents '–'. Find out the answer to the following question. 35 – 12 + 10 × 50 ÷ 14 = ?

A
31
B
6
C
27
D
15
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 16 ÷ 4 × 8 – 10 + 14 = 12

A
× and –
B
÷ and ×
C
÷ and –
D
– and +
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

If 19!3 = 32, 13!4 = 18 and 12!2 = 20, then find the value of 17!3 = ?

A
16
B
28
C
4
D
8
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list? XZYXYXYXY, XYZXYXYXY, XYXZYXYXY, XYXYZXYXY, XYXYXZYXY, __________.

A
ZXYXYXYXY
B
XZYXYXYXY
C
XYZXYXYXY
D
XYXYXYZXY
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

Two navy ships start from the same port. Ship A travels 23 km West, then turns to its left and travels 19 km. Ship B travels 19 km West, then turns North and travels 5 km, then turns to its left and travels 4 km. Where is ship A with respect to ship B?

A
14 km South
B
24 km North
C
24 km South
D
14 km North
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement I: All scissors are knives Statement II: Some blades are scissors Conclusion I: Some knives are blades Conclusion II: All blades are knives

A
Only conclusion I follows
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Both conclusions I and II follow
D
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

In the following figure, rectangle represents Cinematographers, circle represents Lyricists, triangle represents Trekkers and square represents Joggers. Which set of letters represents Trekkers who are not Joggers?

A
ID
B
AD
C
CI
D
AC
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. HOT, GMQ, FKN, EIK, ?

A
CHI
B
CGH
C
DGH
D
DHI
Question 46
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 93, 100, 107, 114, ?, 128

A
120
B
121
C
123
D
122
Question 47
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A
(10, 20, 30)
B
(12, 22, 32)
C
(27, 37, 47)
D
(19, 29, 49)
Question 48
Logical Reasoning

A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix–I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix–II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘D’ can be represented by 31, 43 etc and ‘W’ can be represented by 76, 57etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SKIP’. Matrix I Matrix II 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 A B F D B 5 U P W R Y 1 K H C K G 6 O P O U Z 2 H C I C I 7 O W Y R X 3 M D J F F 8 S V N Z T 4 A K J D J 9 N N X Z Q

A
41, 97, 23, 65
B
44, 86, 11, 56
C
21, 98, 31, 86
D
85, 13, 24, 56
Question 49
Arithmetic

In a company 2/3 of the workers are girls, 1/2 of the girls are married and 1/3 of the married girls live in hostel. If 3/4 of the boys are married and 2/3 of married boys live in hostel. Calculate the part of workers who don’t live in hostel.

A
11/18
B
15/18
C
17/18
D
13/18
Question 50
Arithmetic

If a number 657423547X46 is divisible by 11, then find the value of X.

A
7
B
9
C
8
D
6
Question 51
Arithmetic

Determine the value of \(\frac{{x\; + \;y}}{{x\; + \;2y}}\) when  \(\frac{{2x\; + \;y}}{{x\; + \;4y}} = 3\)

A
3/5
B
7/10
C
4/5
D
10/9
Question 52
Arithmetic

For what value of ‘y’, \({x^2} + \frac{1}{{12}}x + {y^2}\) is a perfect square?

A
1/24
B
1/12
C
1/6
D
1/3
Question 53
Arithmetic

Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the tangents?

A
The tangents drawn at the end of diameter of a circle are parallel to each other.
B
The line segment which joins the point of contact of two parallel tangents to the circle is the diameter of the circle.
C
Tangents drawn from the external points subtends equal angle at the centre.
D
All option are correct.
Question 54
Arithmetic

Which of the following option is CORRECT for SAS similarity criterion for the triangle ABC and DEF?

A
∠A = ∠D and AB/DE = AC/DF
B
∠B = ∠E and AB/DE = BC/EF
C
∠C = ∠F and AC/DF = BC/EF
D
All option are correct
Question 55
Arithmetic

If price of the table is increased by 25%, then a person can buy 25 table less for Rs. 25000. What is the original price (in Rs) of the table?

A
225
B
250
C
200
D
167
Question 56
Arithmetic

A sum of Rs. 125 is divided among u, v and w in such a way that u gets Rs 10 more than v and v gets Rs. 5 more than w. What is the ratio of their shares?

A
12 : 10 : 9
B
10 : 8 : 7
C
13 : 10 : 7
D
5 : 4 : 3
Question 57
Arithmetic

In an alloy, lead and tin are in the ratio of 2 : 3. In the second alloy, the ratio of same elements is 3 : 4. If equal quantities of these two alloy are mixed to form a new alloy, then what will be the ratio of these two elements in the new alloy?

A
1 : 3
B
29 : 41
C
25 : 37
D
31 : 43
Question 58
Arithmetic

Average age of 6 boys is 14 years. Average age of 11 girls is 12 years. What is the average age (in years) of all boys and girls?

A
12.7
B
14.6
C
19.3
D
8.5
Question 59
Arithmetic

Simple interest on a sum for 10 years is equal to 5% of the principal. In how many years interest will be equal to the principal?

A
100
B
150
C
200
D
250
Question 60
Arithmetic

The ratio of selling price to the cost price is 21 : 16. What is the profit percentage?

A
35.75
B
21.75
C
27.75
D
31.25
Question 61
Arithmetic

Dinesh purchases 10 dozens of apples at the rate of Rs. 180 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of Rs. 19.5. What is the profit (in percentage) of Dinesh?

A
30
B
15
C
18
D
25
E
34
Question 62
Arithmetic

If x = 4 + √15, then what is the value of [x 2 + (1/x 2 )]?

A
62
B
64
C
34
D
36
Question 63
Arithmetic

Some masons promised to do a work in 10 days but 8 of them were absent and the remaining did the work in 18 days. What was the original number of masons?

A
10
B
21
C
15
D
18
Question 64
Arithmetic

A boat goes 8 km upstream and 12 km downstream in 7 hours. It goes 9 km upstream and 18 km downstream in 9 hours. What is the speed (in km/h) of the boat in still water?

A
5
B
4
C
2
D
3
Question 65
Arithmetic

Which movie is the favourite of most people surveyed?

A
F
B
D
C
A
D
E
Question 66
Arithmetic

What is the total numbers of people who have responded to the survey?

A
1800
B
2100
C
2400
D
2000
Question 67
Arithmetic

The measure of the central angle of the sector representing number of people whose favourite movie is C is ________ degrees.

A
15
B
20
C
30
D
10
Question 68
Arithmetic

Respondents who say their favourite movie is D and those who say their favourite movie is B constitute what percent of the total respondents?

A
30
B
33.33
C
40
D
25
Question 69
Arithmetic

The perimeter and the length of one of the diagonals of a rhombus is 26 cm and 5 cm respectively. Find the length of its other diagonal (in cm).

A
6
B
12
C
24
D
18
Question 70
Arithmetic

If the area of a semi-circle is 1925 cm 2 , then find its radius (in cm).

A
70
B
31
C
62
D
35
Question 71
Arithmetic

The total surface area of a cube is 253.5 cm 2 . Find its side (in cm).

A
7.5
B
5.5
C
6.5
D
8.5
Question 72
Arithmetic

ΔDEF is right angled at E. If m∠F = 30 0 , then find the value of (sin D - 1/3).

A
-1/2√3
B
(3√3 - 2)/6
C
(√2 - √3)/√6
D
(2√2 - 1)/√2
Question 73
Arithmetic

ΔDEF is right angled at E. If cosec D = 25/24, then what is the value of cos F?

A
25/7
B
24/7
C
24/25
D
7/24
Question 74
GK

Generally unemployment in a developing country takes place because of ___________.

A
Lack of complementary factors of production
B
Seasonal factors
C
Lack of effective demand
D
Switch over from one job to another
Question 75
GK

The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is ________.

A
Vice-Chairman of Planning Commission
B
General Secretary of Lok Sabha
C
Secretary of Finance Ministry
D
Secretary of Planning Commission
Question 76
GK

Who of the following founded the Vikramashila University?

A
Devapala I
B
Dharmpala
C
Gopala
D
Devapala II
Question 77
GK

Which Governor General of India used to write poetry with the name of "Owen Meredith"?

A
Lord Dalhousie
B
Lord Ripon
C
Lord Lytton
D
Lord Canning
Question 78
GK

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A
Etna : Italy
B
Fujiyama : Japan
C
Popa : Myanmar
D
Krakatau : Malaysia
Question 79
GK

The highest mountain peak of Chhotanagpur Plateau is ________.

A
Dhoopgarh
B
Pachmarhi
C
Parasnath
D
Mahabaleshwar
Question 80
GK

Begum Akhtar is associated to which art form?

A
Dance
B
Painting
C
Music
D
Folk Art
Question 81
GK

Which of the following countries has built the world's biggest air purifier, a 328 feet high tower, to combat air pollution?

A
Germany
B
India
C
Australia
D
China
Question 82
GK

Who among the following writers won the 2017 Sahitya Academy Award for Hindi literature?

A
Niranjan Mishra
B
Ramesh Kuntal Megh
C
Uday Narayana Singh
D
Shrikant Deshmukh
Question 83
GK

Which is the largest City of Nepal?

A
Hetauda
B
Pokhara
C
Biratnagar
D
Kathmandu
Question 84
GK

Elements having same atomic numbers but a different mass number are called ______.

A
isotones
B
isotopes
C
isobar
D
None of the above
Question 85
GK

Washing soda is used ______. I. for removing permanent hardness of water II. for disinfecting drinking water III. as a cleaning agent for the domestic purpose

A
Only I and II
B
Only I and III
C
Only II and III
D
All I, II and III
Question 86
GK

What are the minimum qualifications of a person to become a member of Lok Sabha? I. Must be a citizen of India. II. Must not be less than 25 years of age. III. Must hold an office of profit under Union Government.

A
Only I and II
B
Only II
C
Both I and III
D
I, II and III
Question 87
GK

The India Parliament should meet at least ______.

A
Once a year
B
Twice a year
C
Thrice a year
D
Four times in a year
Question 88
GK

Which is the longest part of alimentary canal?

A
Oesophagus
B
Small intestine
C
Large intestine
D
Buccal cavity
Question 89
GK

Organs having different structures and components but performing similar functions are called ______.

A
Analogous organs
B
Homologous organs
C
Heterogeneous organs
D
Homogenous organs
Question 90
GK

In August 2017, Environment Ministry of India launched ‘GajYatra’ to protect ______.

A
Tigers
B
Elephants
C
Lions
D
Rhino
Question 91
GK

Which country has made the world’s largest amphibious aircraft named AG600?

A
United States of America
B
Russia
C
China
D
Saudi Arabia
Question 92
GK

In August 2017, which of the following launched world’s first futures contracts in ‘diamonds’?

A
Indian Commodity Exchange (ICEX)
B
Multi Commodity Exchange (MCEX)
C
National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations (NASDAQ)
D
None of these
Question 93
GK

What is the resistance (in Ω) of an electrical component if a current of 0.2 A passes through it on the application of 8 V of a potential difference across it?

A
40
B
1.6
C
80
D
3.2
Question 94
GK

The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) ________.

A
is greater at the poles than at the equator
B
is lesser at the poles than at the equator
C
is greater at the North pole than at the South pole
D
is greater at the South pole than at the North pole
Question 95
GK

Seismic waves are recorded by an instrument called the ________________.

A
Seismograph
B
Odograph
C
Isograph
D
Lithograph
Question 96
GK

Which of the statements given below are correct? A) In 2017, Dani Pedrosa raced in MotoGP for Yamaha. B) Alexander Zverev won the Tennis 2017 Miami Open Men's Singles. C) Viktor Axelsen won the Badminton 2017 BWF Super Series Finals Men's Singles.

A
Only B
B
Only C
C
Both A and C
D
None of these
Question 97
GK

Computer networks constituting the internet are connected by telephones, underwater cables and _____________

A
e-mail
B
e-books
C
Public telephone booths
D
Satellites
Question 98
GK

On 3 January 2018, Lok Sabha passed Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment) Bill, 2017. The Bill seeks to permit construction in ‘Prohibited areas’ for ______.

A
Private Purposes
B
Public Purposes
C
Both public and private Purposes
D
None of these