SSC-CHSL 2017 Questions

20 Mar 2018 • Shift 3

98 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. Of all the forts (1)/ that I’ve visit in India, (2)/ Daulatabad Fort is my favourite. (3)/ No error (4)

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 2
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. The Bench will also have to say (1)/ whether the laws are really at consonance with (2)/ the basic tenets of the 1960 Act. (3)/ No error (4)

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 3
Comprehension

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. A paragraph _________ number of sentences grouped together.

A
Could be a
B
Was
C
Would be
D
Is a
Question 4
Comprehension

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. What would you have done if you _________ the band?

A
Was in
B
Is in
C
Will be in
D
Were in
Question 5
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Carouse

A
Quaff
B
Grieve
C
Overlook
D
Ignore
Question 6
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Clement

A
Irritate
B
Cold
C
Clingy
D
Mild
Question 7
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Artifice

A
Truthfulness
B
Trick
C
Skill
D
Scheme
Question 8
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Extant

A
Extinct
B
Present
C
Immediate
D
Around
Question 9
Comprehension

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. Sociologists believe P: that the reason why honour killings Q: of the continued rigidity of the caste system R: continue to take place is because

A
PRQ
B
RQP
C
QRP
D
PQR
Question 10
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. The mechanic uses old spare parts for the car.

A
Old spare parts were used for the car by the mechanic. 
B
Old spare parts was used for the car by the mechanic. 
C
Old spare parts is being used for the car by the mechanic. 
D
Old spare parts are used for the car by the mechanic.
Question 11
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. The visitor enquired, “When is the next train?”

A
The visitor enquired about the next train.
B
The visitor enquired when the next train was.
C
The visitor asked when is the next train.
D
The visitor was interested in the next train.
Question 12
Comprehension

In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
Acquittied 
B
Acquitted 
C
Ecquited 
D
Acqiuteed
Question 13
Comprehension

Left to itself, then, attention _____________ obeys natural laws

A
Simple
B
Simply
C
Simplification
D
Simplicity
Question 14
Comprehension

least resistance. _______________ far the larger portion

A
By
B
With
C
Along
D
Such
Question 15
Comprehension

conscious of effort _____________ struggle to compel

A
No
B
Not
C
None
D
Nor
Question 16
Comprehension

thinking about _________. Indeed,

A
This
B
These
C
Them
D
That
Question 17
Comprehension

be doubted ___________ this is not the case

A
Weather
B
Wither
C
Wether
D
Whether
Question 18
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Ring-fencing

A
The place where the sport of fencing is played by two opponents.
B
Doubly protecting your assets.
C
Guarantee that funds allocated for a particular purpose will not be spent on anything else.
D
Be ready to fight for what is your right.
Question 19
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Keep your chin up

A
Behave arrogantly in front of elders.
B
Keep your self respect at all times.
C
Remain cheerful in difficult circumstances.
D
Pretend to be good when you have an evil plan.
Question 20
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Be deprived of property or a right or privilege as a penalty for wrongdoing

A
Forfeited
B
Endow
C
Render
D
Assign
Question 21
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Absolve someone from blame for a fault or wrongdoing

A
Indict
B
Exonerate
C
Allege
D
Slur
Question 22
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". He (has to develop) self-confidence, so leave him alone.

A
Have to develop
B
Are to develop
C
Has to be developed
D
No improvement
Question 23
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". The music (soothe) me and I stroll on happily.

A
Soothing
B
Soothes
C
Had soothed
D
No improvement
Question 24
Comprehension

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. There is an A: a telephonic talk could never replicate B: instant rapport in the written C: communication which the printed message or

A
BAC
B
ACB
C
ABC
D
BCA
Question 25
Comprehension

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
Bifurckated 
B
Biffurcated 
C
Biffurckated 
D
Bifurcated  
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives. Saw : Carpenter :: ? : ?

A
Pen : Soldier
B
Sword : Sculptor
C
Scalpel : Plough
D
Axe : Woodcutter
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related number pair from the given alternatives. 69 : 87 :: ? : ?

A
77 : 97
B
117 : 135 
C
95 : 107
D
121 : 145
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives. SQM : RPL :: ? : ?

A
KCN : JBO
B
DQA : CPB
C
BSU : ART 
D
PYC : OXD 
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A
Red
B
Green
C
White
D
Painting
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (-) is related to the number on the right side of (-) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the pairs.

A
16 - 32
B
24 - 48 
C
36 - 72
D
32 - 66
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A
GEC
B
NLJ
C
OMK
D
YWN
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Clump 2. Clown 3. Climax 4. Clumsy 5. Climb

A
32541
B
41523
C
35214
D
45213
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 2, 3, 4, 9, 16, 29, 54, ?

A
109
B
99
C
87
D
117
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. E, I, M, ?, U, Y

A
Q
B
R
C
T
D
S
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

Present age of R and S are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. If the present age of H is 117 years and R’s present age is 4/13 of H’s present age, then after how many years the ages of R and S would be in the ratio of 15 : 11?

A
9
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word. Represhensible

A
Repair
B
Hen
C
Rise
D
Ripe
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, “ FUMIC ” is written as “ 6211393 ” and “ STEAM ” is written as “ 19205113 ”. How is “ PROP ” written in that code language?

A
714812
B
6159134
C
16181516
D
1271418
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, '×' represents '+', '÷' represents '×', ' - ' represents '÷' and '+' represents '-'. Find out the answer to the following question. 20 ÷ 12 - 30 + 10 × 10 = ?

A
8
B
25
C
14
D
21
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 32 ÷ 16 - 5 × 8 + 2 = 13

A
+ and ÷
B
+ and ×
C
and +
D
÷ and × 
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

If 6@16 = 11, 2@14 = 8 and 8@8 = 8, then find the value of 10@18 = ?

A
4
B
6
C
12
D
14
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list? BAAAAABA, BAAAABAA, BAAABAAA, BAABAAAA, BABAAAAA, ________.

A
BAAAAAAB
B
BAAAAABA
C
BBAAAAAA
D
BAAAABAA
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

An old man starts his daily walking routine. He walks 2 km East, then turns North and walks 1 km, then turns West and walks 2 km, then turns to his right and walks 1.5 kms. Where is he now with respect to the starting position?

A
0.5 km North
B
2.5 km South
C
0.5 km South
D
2.5 km North
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement I: No taps are nozzles Statement II: Some valves are taps Conclusion I: All nozzles are valves Conclusion II: All valves are nozzles

A
Only conclusion I follows
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Both conclusions I and II follow
D
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

In the following figure, rectangle represents Hairstylists, circle represents Racers, triangle represents Divers and square represents Fathers. Which set of letters represents fathers who are Divers?

A
BA
B
AC
C
HA
D
GA
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. RFT, QDQ, PBN, OZK, ?

A
LVF
B
KUE
C
MWG
D
NXH
Question 46
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 52, 41, 32, 25, ?, 17

A
21
B
20
C
18
D
19
Question 47
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A
(6, 19, 30)
B
(9, 29, 45)
C
(11, 34, 55)
D
(13, 40, 65)
Question 48
Logical Reasoning

A word is represented by onlt one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix - I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix - II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its coulmn, for example ‘C’ can be represented by 23, 40 etc and ‘X’ can be represented by 66, 96 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘DUNG’. Matrix I Matrix II 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 M A E L M 5 V Y U S S 1 C G M J K 6 P X Q O R 2 F B I C F 7 N V V O Q 3 F A L J I 8 S Q U T U 4 C L D K F 9 Q X S V Z

A
31, 76, 24, 96
B
20, 59, 41, 88
C
33, 68, 31, 75
D
42, 57, 75, 11
Question 49
Arithmetic

Find the unit place digit in the expression \({\left( {159} \right)^{144}} + {\left( {114} \right)^{123}} - {\left( {110} \right)^{510}} + {\left( {213} \right)^{25}}\)

A
3
B
4
C
7
D
8
Question 50
Arithmetic

If \(\frac{{256}}{{0.256}} = \frac{{25.6}}{x}\) then what will be the value of x?

A
2.56
B
25.6 
C
0.256
D
0.0256
Question 51
Arithmetic

If \(x = \sqrt {15\sqrt {15\sqrt {15\sqrt {15\sqrt {15} } } } } \ldots .\infty\) and x > 0, then find the value of x 2 + 4

A
125
B
179
C
200
D
229
Question 52
Arithmetic

The two equations x – 4y = 0 and 4x + 3y = 19 have a solution (a, b). Find the value of \(\frac{{ab}}{{a\; + \;4b}}.\)

A
1/4
B
1/2
C
1
D
23
Question 53
Arithmetic

Which of the following statement is CORRECT about a triangle?

A
If the triangles are congruent then their area will be equal.
B
If the areas of two similar triangles are equal then the triangle is congruent.
C
Two congruent triangles are always similar to each other.
D
All options are correct
Question 54
Arithmetic

Classify the triangle as a type of triangle if the sides of the triangle are 6, 12 and 13 units.

A
Right angled triangle
B
Obtuse angled triangle
C
Acute angled triangle
D
None of these
Question 55
Arithmetic

Weight of Ayush and Abhishek are in the ratio of 6 : 11. Abhishek’s weight increases by 25% and total weight of Ayush and Abhishek both increases by 40%. If total weight becomes 119 kg, then what is the weight (in kg) of Ayush after the increment?

A
45.5
B
30
C
50.25
D
47.75
Question 56
Arithmetic

A box consist of 5 rupees, 2 rupees and 1 rupee coins and their value are in the ratio of 15 : 4 : 2 respectively. If there are total 112 coins, then how many 2 rupees coins are there in the box?

A
32
B
48
C
64
D
24
Question 57
Arithmetic

A mixture contains liquid A and liquid B in the ratio of 5 : 4. If 2 litres of liquid B is added to it, then the ratio of liquid A and liquid B becomes 7 : 6. What is the quantity (in litres) of liquid A in the mixture?

A
32
B
35
C
40
D
42
Question 58
Arithmetic

Average of 10 numbers is 14. If each number is multiplied by 6, then what will be the new average?

A
70
B
84
C
56
D
92
Question 59
Arithmetic

The simple interest on a sum is 5/9 of the principal for 25 years. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

A
25/9
B
9/2 
C
20/9
D
15/4
Question 60
Arithmetic

If selling price and cost price of an article are Rs. 684.25 and Rs. 595 respectively, then what is the profit percentage?

A
15
B
10
C
12.5
D
20
Question 61
Arithmetic

The marked price of a book is Rs. 4200. The shopkeeper gives two successive discounts of 25% and y% to the customer. If the customer pays Rs. 2898 for the book, then what is the value (in percentage) of y?

A
7
B
8
C
6
D
5
Question 62
Arithmetic

What is the value of [(√529) + (√5.29) + (√0.0529)]?

A
25.323
B
25.53
C
23.253
D
23.53
Question 63
Arithmetic

P and Q undertook to do a work for Rs. 7200. P alone could do it in 20 days and Q alone in 12 days. With the assistance of R they finished the work in 5 days. What is the share (in Rs) of R?

A
1800
B
2400
C
2800
D
2600
Question 64
Arithmetic

A boat covers 143 km upstream in 13 hours and the same distance downstream in 11 hours. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the boat in still water?

A
10
B
12
C
14
D
8
Question 65
Arithmetic

In which year was the steel production lesser than that of the previous year?

A
2013
B
2014
C
2012
D
2016
Question 66
Arithmetic

What was the difference (in million tonnes) in the steel production between the years 2011 and 2015?

A
10
B
5
C
15
D
20
Question 67
Arithmetic

By what percent the steel production in 2012 was greater than that of 2015?

A
80%
B
73.6%
C
200%
D
260%
Question 68
Arithmetic

If 1 tonne of steel costs Rs. 30,000, then what was the cost (in Rs billion) of the steel production in the year 2017?

A
240
B
3000 
C
2400
D
300
Question 69
Arithmetic

The perimeter of a square is 26 cm. Find its area (in cm 2 ).

A
42.25
B
84.5
C
39.25
D
78.5
Question 70
Arithmetic

The area of a circle is 616 cm 2 . Find its radius (in cm).

A
14
B
28
C
11
D
22
Question 71
Arithmetic

Find the surface area (in cm 2 ) of a sphere whose diameter is 14 cm.

A
616
B
910
C
511
D
1025
Question 72
Arithmetic

What is the value of (1/√3 – sin 45°)?

A
1/2√3
B
(√2 – √3)/√6
C
1 – √2
D
(4 – √3)/2
Question 73
Arithmetic

In ΔPQR measure of angle Q is 90°. If cotP = 8/15, and PQ = 4 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side PR?

A
8.5
B
7.5
C
5
D
4
Question 74
GK

Voting rights in the IMF are distributed on the basis of ___________.

A
one country one vote 
B
proportion to the share of the income of the country in the world income 
C
proportion of contributions given by each country 
D
proportion to quota allotted to countries from time to the time
Question 75
GK

The purpose of land reforms was to achieve __________.

A
increase in production 
B
increase the purchasing power of the rural population 
C
ensure distributive justice with economic growth 
D
All options are correct. 
Question 76
GK

What is called the residual eroded mounds sporadically located in Karst Plains?

A
Monadnock 
B
Pediplain 
C
Hum
D
No option is correct. 
Question 77
GK

Which of the following rivers of peninsular India is distinct from the remaining three?

A
Narmada
B
Cauvery
C
Krishna
D
Godavari
Question 78
GK

Couple burial was found in which of the following Harappan sites?

A
Mohenjodaro
B
Harappa
C
Chanhudado
D
Lothal
Question 79
GK

The Indian Council of 1892 Act was based on which plan?

A
Northbrook Plan
B
Dufferin Plan
C
Ripon Plan
D
Gladstone Plan
Question 80
GK

In which area did Nandalal Bose earn fame?

A
Painting
B
Folk Art
C
Dance
D
Politics
Question 81
GK

Which country in October 2017 announced to allow women into three sports stadium for the first time from 2018?

A
UAE
B
Qatar
C
Saudi Arabia
D
Kuwait
Question 82
GK

In January 2018, Aziz Ansari became the first Indian-American and first Asian to win a Golden Globe award for which comedy series?

A
Parent Trap
B
Running North
C
Master of None
D
Gone with the wind
Question 83
GK

Who among the following is the author of Sri Lanka's national anthem?

A
Ananda Samarkand
B
Kumaratunga Munidasa
C
Siri Gunasinghe
D
P. B. Jayasekara
Question 84
GK

Which of the following group does NOT follow Newlands Law of Octaves?

A
Li, Na
B
Be, Mg
C
C, Si
D
Mn, Hg
Question 85
GK

Which of the following is an example of the compound?

A
Manganese
B
Air
C
Ozone
D
Ammonia gas
Question 86
GK

Which Schedule of Indian Constitution was added by 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

A
Eight Schedule
B
Ninth Schedule
C
Tenth Schedule
D
Eleventh Schedule
Question 87
GK

In India, which among the following can be amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States? I. Election of President and its manner II. Any of the lists in Seventh Schedule III. Amendment in Fundamental Right

A
Only I
B
Only II
C
Both I and II
D
All I, II and III
Question 88
GK

Blood is a connective tissue embedded in which type of intercellular matrix?

A
Jelly-like
B
Fluid
C
Dense
D
No option is correct
Question 89
GK

Slow-growing large colored patches on the bark of trees are the examples of symbiotic life forms called ________.

A
Aphids
B
Egrets
C
Lichens
D
Shrimps
Question 90
GK

On 17 October 2017, who launched the online Campaign ‘women for women:#IAmThatWomen’ to end gender bias?

A
Nirmala Sitharan
B
Sushma Swaraj
C
Sonia Gandhi
D
Maneka Gandhi
Question 91
GK

India was declared free from which infective eye disorder on 9 December 2017?

A
Blepharitis
B
Chalazia
C
Pinkeye
D
Trachoma
Question 92
GK

On 25 October 2017, the government announced a recapitalization plan for state-owned banks. How much amount was announced for Banks’ recapitalization?

A
Rs. 3.11 lakh crore
B
Rs. 5.1 lakh crore
C
Rs. 2.11 lakh crore
D
Rs. 7 lakh crore
Question 93
GK

On 22 November 2017, the cabinet approved the expansion of "Beti Bacho Beti Padhao" for a Pan India coverage in how many districts of the country?

A
640
B
820
C
1000
D
1100
Question 94
GK

What is the heat generated (in J) in a heating element of resistance 800 Ω when a current of 0.2 A passes through it for 40 seconds?

A
6400
B
1280
C
640
D
3200
Question 95
GK

When an object is thrown vertically upwards, at its maximum height its ___________.

A
potential energy is zero
B
momentum is maximum
C
kinetic energy is zero
D
gravitational force is maximum
Question 96
GK

________contributes towards global warming so it is called a greenhouse gas.

A
Oxygen
B
Nitrogen
C
Hydrogen
D
Methane
Question 97
GK

Which of the statements given below are correct? A) United Arab Emirates hosted the Tennis 2017 ATP World Tour Finals. B) In 2017, Per Mertesacker captained the Premier League team Manchester United. C) In 2017, Stephen Curry played for the NBA team Golden State Warriors.

A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
A, B and C
Question 98
GK

In Microsoft Excel, Ctrl + right arrow key leads to _______ cell movement on a spreadsheet.

A
End of column
B
End of row
C
One cell Left
D
One cell right