SSC-CHSL 2017 Questions

26 Mar 2018 • Shift 3

98 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. Evolutionary processes give rise to biodiversity in every (1)/ level of biological organisation, including the level of (2)/ species, individual organisms, and molecules. (3)/ No error (4)

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 2
Comprehension

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. Population decline, counter-urbanisation, invasion, and (1)/ movement of people, which had begun in Late (2)/ Antiquity, continued in the Early Middle Ages. (3)/ No error (4)

A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 3
Comprehension

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The architect was unable to _________ those designs.

A
Made
B
Sketch
C
Scatter
D
Built
Question 4
Comprehension

Choose the most appropriate answer to fill in the blank Life is short but it has a _________ meaning.

A
Rare
B
Sharp
C
Deep
D
Blur
Question 5
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Pert

A
Humble
B
Lively
C
Meek
D
Timid
Question 6
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Copious

A
Counterfeit
B
Plentiful
C
Commendable
D
Deficient
Question 7
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Egregious

A
Noticeable
B
Gross
C
Mild
D
Obvious
Question 8
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Rectitude

A
Goodness
B
Infamy
C
Honesty
D
Character
Question 9
Comprehension

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. The elusive P: status in the Red List of the International Q: snow leopard has lost its endangered R: Union for Conservation of Nature

A
QPR
B
RPQ
C
QRP
D
PQR
Question 10
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. He gave her promotion happily.

A
She was given promotion happily by him.
B
She had been given promotion by him happily.
C
Her promotion was gave happily by him.
D
Her promotion was given.
Question 11
Comprehension

A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech. Anuj said, “I need your help now.”

A
Anju needed my help then.
B
Anuj said that he needed my help then.
C
Anuj said he needed my help now.
D
Anuj says he needed my help now.
Question 12
Comprehension

In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
Hygiene
B
Hygine
C
Higine
D
Hygeine
Question 13
Comprehension

we will not ______________ find ourselves in that

A
Automatically
B
Automatic
C
Automatical
D
Automation
Question 14
Comprehension

a sign of success and ____________ in our binary outlook.

A
Appreciate
B
Appreciative
C
Appreciation
D
Appreciatively
Question 15
Comprehension

at the back _______ our mind.

A
For
B
From
C
Off
D
Of
Question 16
Comprehension

What if we end __________ in the other group

A
Upon
B
On
C
Up
D
Above
Question 17
Comprehension

list of failures _________ embarrassments that go viral

A
But
B
Nor
C
Also
D
And
Question 18
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Stab someone in the back

A
Praise someone.
B
Like someone secretly.
C
Betray someone.
D
Meet someone after a long time.
Question 19
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Over my dead body

A
Used to emphasize that one completely opposes something.
B
Be dead sure of something.
C
Feel afraid of something or someone.
D
Feel unhealthy and very weak.
Question 20
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Farmland ploughed and harrowed but left for a period without being sown in order to restore its fertility

A
Fallow
B
Urbane
C
Sophisticated
D
Genteel
Question 21
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence. Showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern

A
Ardent
B
Fervent
C
Apathetic
D
Melancholic
Question 22
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". Over the last few weeks I (has been) on a whirlwind series of travel for work and vacation.

A
Have been
B
Was been
C
Have being
D
No improvement
Question 23
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select "no improvement". I closed the window just in time and (return) to my room with relief.

A
Returns
B
Returned
C
Will return
D
No improvement
Question 24
Comprehension

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. In order to A-regulate the technology and boost B-the rankings, we need our C-teachers to do exponential thinking

A
CBA
B
CAB
C
BCA
D
ABC
Question 25
Comprehension

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A
Symptommatically
B
Symptomaticaly
C
Symptomatically
D
Symptommaticaly
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives. Ohm : Resistance ∷ ? : ?

A
Temperature : Degree
B
Hectare : Area
C
Energy : Watt
D
Current : Ampere
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 16 : 23 ∷ 22 : ?

A
34
B
29
C
23
D
31
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives. GOI : RZT ∷ FMD : ?

A
PWN
B
QXP
C
PWO
D
QXO
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

A
Figure - Rectangle
B
Ornament - Ring
C
Vehicle - Scooter
D
Necklace - Ornament
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number on the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A
17 – 34
B
37 – 74
C
43 – 86
D
29 – 59
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A
SKC
B
ZRJ
C
ZSK
D
VNF
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Pinnacle 2. Pigment 3. Pierce 4. Phony 5. Pick

A
52431
B
45321
C
12453
D
23514
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 13, 19, 32, 51, 83, ?

A
142
B
134
C
156
D
140
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. CLG, GPK, KTO, OXS, ?

A
TBW
B
SZW
C
SWA
D
SBW
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

Suraj is shorter than Gopal but taller than Tarun. Rajan is the tallest and Shivam is shorter than Suraj but not the shortest. Who is the third shortest?

A
Gopal
B
Suraj
C
Rajan
D
Shivam
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word. Endeavors

A
Vote
B
Rose
C
End
D
Done
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, “LINKS” is written as “93210” and “CROMA” is written as “84576”. How is “ROCKS” written in that code language?

A
81054
B
83106
C
45810
D
10486
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, '-' represents '+', '+' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'. Find out the answer to the following question. 7 - 8 + 20 x 10 ÷ 9 = ?

A
18
B
20
C
22
D
14
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 16 × 4 - 10 + 2 ÷ 12 = 18

A
× and -
B
÷ and -
C
and +
D
÷ and ×
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

If 4!4 = 80, 3!8 = 110 and 6!2 = 80, then find the value of 7!9 = ?

A
70
B
100
C
60
D
160
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list? ABABCDAB, ABADCBAB, ABCDABAB, ADCBABAB, CDABABAB, _______________.

A
ABABADCB
B
ABABCDAB
C
ABADCBAB
D
CBABABAD
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

The fitness club has organised a race. The route goes 4.5 km West from the starting point. It then turns North and goes 3 kms, then turns East and goes 4.5 km, finally it turns left and goes 1.5 km to reach the end point. Where is the end point with respect to the start point?

A
4.5 km North
B
1.5 km South
C
4.5 km South
D
1.5 km North
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements. Statement I: Some ribbons are tapes. Statement II: Some strips are ribbons. Conclusion I: All tapes are strips. Conclusion II: No strips are tapes.

A
Only conclusion I follows
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Both conclusions I and II follow
D
Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

In the following figure, rectangle represents Hairstylists, circle represents choreographers, triangle represents Mountain climbers and square represents Gymnasts. Which set of letters represents Gymnasts who are both Hairstylists as well as Mountain climbers?

A
CF
B
GF
C
C
D
BC
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. AHR, HOY, OVF, VCM, ?

A
CJT
B
BKU
C
ALV
D
ZGQ
Question 46
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 6, 13, 20, 27, ?

A
34
B
32
C
37
D
43
Question 47
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A
(7, 36, 21)
B
(9, 46, 27)
C
(11, 56, 33)
D
(22, 106, 63)
Question 48
Logical Reasoning

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matri×-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matri×-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and ne×t by its column, for e×ample ‘C’ can be represented by 21, 34 etc and ‘T’ can be represented by 97, 89 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘MAZE’. Matrix- I 0 1 2 3 4 0 E F H E I 1 E G E M M 2 K C H G L 3 L J G G C 4 J A M J J Matrix- II 5 6 7 8 9 5 N W P V S 6 R W Q Y N 7 P Z P U U 8 N Q U R T 9 R V T Q O

A
22, 97, 43, 66
B
24,76,12,66
C
31,76,11,58
D
14,41,76,12
Question 49
Arithmetic

Find the average of first 20 multiples of 9.

A
94.8
B
94.7
C
94.6
D
94.5
Question 50
Arithmetic

Calculate \(\frac{{7\left| {2 - 6} \right| - 4\left| 5 \right| \div 5}}{{ - 7\left( 2 \right) - 2 \times 2\; \div 2 + 2}}\)

A
\(- \frac{{16}}{{18}}\)
B
\(- \frac{{14}}{7}\)
C
\(- \frac{{12}}{7}\)
D
\(- \frac{{12}}{{18}}\)
Question 51
Arithmetic

Find the value of equation a 3 + b 3 + c 3 - 3abc. if a 2 + b 2 + c 2 = ab + bc + ca + 4 and a + b + c = 4.

A
0
B
1
C
16
D
256
Question 52
Arithmetic

What is the x – intercept of the linear equation 18x + 25y – 900 = 0?

A
18
B
25
C
50
D
450
Question 53
Arithmetic

Two equal circles intersect each other at point A and B, whose centers are O and O’. OO’ = 24 mm and AB = 10 mm, then find the area (in sq. mm) of the circle.

A
530.66
B
520.66
C
510.33
D
500.33
Question 54
Arithmetic

The length of the diameter of the circle is 10 cm and length of the chord drawn in a circle is 6 cm. Find the distance (in cm) of chord from the center.

A
10
B
8
C
6
D
4
Question 55
Arithmetic

60% of P = 50% of Q and Q = x% of P. What is the value of x?

A
130
B
120
C
140
D
80
Question 56
Arithmetic

X, Y and Z are partners in a company. In one year X receives 1/4 part of profit, Y receives 1/5 part of profit and Z receives Rs. 22000. How much amount (in Rs.) will X get as profit?

A
10000
B
12000
C
15000
D
18000
Question 57
Arithmetic

P and Q started a business by investing Rs. 50000 and Rs. 40000 respectively. After 4 months, P withdraws Rs. 20000 while Q invests Rs. 70000 more after 6 months of starting the business. At the end of the year P’s share in the profit is Rs. 11000. What will be the total profit (in Rs.) at the end of year?

A
33500
B
22500
C
42800
D
38800
Question 58
Arithmetic

The average weight of 25 candles is 40 grams. If some candles of weight 50 grams each were removed then the average weight becomes 37.5 grams. How many candles of weight 50 grams each were removed?

A
3
B
5
C
8
D
12
Question 59
Arithmetic

Simple interest on a sum for 9 months at 8% per annum is Rs. 270. What is the value (in Rs) of the sum?

A
5200
B
5400
C
4500
D
3600
Question 60
Arithmetic

The difference between cost price and selling price is Rs. 575. If profit percentage is 23%, then what is the selling price (in Rs.)?

A
3225
B
1925
C
2500
D
3075
Question 61
Arithmetic

A merchant marks the price of his articles 20% above the cost price. If he allows 20% discount, then what is the profit or loss percentage?

A
2% loss
B
4% profit
C
4% loss
D
No profit/loss
Question 62
Arithmetic

What is that least digit that must be added to the product 5786 × 5784 to make it a perfect square?

A
1
B
6
C
5
D
4
Question 63
Arithmetic

20 boys do one fourth of a work in 25 days. How many more boys will be required to complete the remaining work in 50 days?

A
8
B
10
C
15
D
20
Question 64
Arithmetic

When Gopal walks from A to B and returns from B to A on a cycle, it takes him 46 minutes. When walking both ways, it takes him 75 minutes. If he rides the cycle both ways then what will be the total time (in minutes) taken by him?

A
19
B
17
C
23
D
15
Question 65
Arithmetic

If all students of Division C got bonus 10 marks for winning the inter-school trophy their new average marks would increase by how much?

A
15%
B
25%
C
16.67%
D
20%
Question 66
Arithmetic

Average marks of division A were lesser than that of Division C by _________

A
100%
B
150%
C
200%
D
50%
Question 67
Arithmetic

What is the ratio of average marks scored by Division C to Division G?

A
3 : 5
B
5 : 3
C
6 : 5
D
5 : 6
Question 68
Arithmetic

Which division scored the second highest average marks?

A
F
B
B
C
A
D
C
Question 69
Arithmetic

The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 15 cm respectively. Find its area (in cm²).

A
30
B
120
C
90
D
60
Question 70
Arithmetic

Find the area (in cm²) of a semi-circle of radius 35 cm.

A
3850
B
960
C
1920
D
1925
Question 71
Arithmetic

Find the total surface area (in cm²) of a right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and slant height 10 cm.

A
374
B
570
C
428
D
524
Question 72
Arithmetic

ΔDEF is right angled at E. If m∠D = 45°, then find the value of (tanF + 1/3).

A
4/3
B
3√3/2
C
(√2 + 1)/√2
D
(3√2 + 1)/3
Question 73
Arithmetic

In ΔXYZ measure of angle Y is 90°. If cosecX = 17/15, and XY = 4cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side YZ?

A
7.5
B
8.5
C
5
D
6
Question 74
GK

Which of the following is NOT included in general methodology while assessing the national income?

A
Pension
B
Investment Expenditure
C
Value added
D
Consumption Expenditure
Question 75
GK

In India, the Black Revolution is associated with self-dependence in the production of__________.

A
Oil seeds production
B
Crude petroleum
C
Black box
D
No option is correct
Question 76
GK

Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchipuram, the capital of Pallavas, during the reign which of the following rulers?

A
Mahendra Verman I
B
Mahendra Verman II
C
Narasimha Varman I
D
Parmeshwar Varman II
Question 77
GK

Which of the following movements E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker was associated with?

A
Self-respect movement
B
Viacom movement
C
Justice movement
D
Ezhava movement
Question 78
GK

World famous Kaieteur Falls is situated on which river?

A
Potaro
B
Mississippi
C
St. Lawrence
D
Zambezi
Question 79
GK

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

A
Shivasamudram Falls - Kaveri
B
Dhuandhar Falls - Narmada
C
Sahastradhara Falls - Baldy
D
Gerosoppa Falls - Kaveri
Question 80
GK

In which year did Vivekananda participate in the Parliament of the World's Religions?

A
1893 AD
B
1895 AD
C
1897 AD
D
1899 AD
Question 81
GK

What was the theme of the Global Entrepreneurship Summit, 2017 organised in Hyderabad?

A
Development for All
B
Women First, Prosperity for All
C
Run for Development
D
Women's World
Question 82
GK

Which of the following films won the best film award in the 48th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), organized from November 20 to 28, 2017 in Panji, Goa?

A
120 Beats per Minute
B
Take Off
C
Angels Wear White
D
Dark Skull
Question 83
GK

How much area of Bhutan is approximately covered with forest?

A
45%
B
61%
C
72%
D
84%
Question 84
GK

The atoms of the elements having same difference between mass number and atomic number are called ______.

A
Isobar
B
Isotopes
C
Isotones
D
No option is correct.
Question 85
GK

Heavy water is mostly used in which of the following?

A
In fire extinguisher
B
In nuclear reactors
C
In washing cloth
D
In both Nuclear reactors and Fire extinguisher
Question 86
GK

______ prevents the Panchayat from doing wrong things like misusing money or favouring certain people.

A
Gram Sabha
B
District Collector
C
Sarpanch
D
Secretary
Question 87
GK

______ is a particular area from which all the voters living there choose their representatives.

A
Constituency
B
Voting Area
C
Election Area
D
Legislative Area
Question 88
GK

Match the following. Organism Reproduction process I. Leishmania 1. Bud formation II. Yeast 2. Fragmentation III. Spirogyra 3. Binary fission

A
I – 2, II – 3, III – 1
B
I – 1, II – 3, III – 2
C
I – 3, II – 1, III – 2
D
I – 3, II – 2, III – 1
Question 89
GK

What is the shape of the two guard cells which enclose stomata?

A
Oval
B
Triangular
C
Rectangular
D
Kidney shaped
Question 90
GK

Under the ‘National Electric Mobility Mission Plan’, the government wants to see 6-7 million electric and hybrid vehicles on Indian roads from year ______ onwards.

A
2022
B
2020
C
2025
D
2019
Question 91
GK

Which research laboratory has developed an Artificial Intelligent robot named Shelley that writes horror stories?

A
IBM – Media research lab
B
MIT – Media Lab
C
Almaden’s Visual Media
D
Wal-mart Media Lab
Question 92
GK

On 9 November 2017, House Building Advance (HBA) rules were revised. Now, under the new rules, the central government employee can barrow a maximum of how much amount from government?

A
Rs 50 lakh
B
Rs 25 lakh
C
Rs 75 lakh
D
Rs 15 lakh
Question 93
GK

The Government of India has approved year 2018 as National year of which nutrient rich crop to boost its production?

A
Millet
B
Wheat
C
Rice
D
Maize
Question 94
GK

Find the acceleration (in m/s 2 ) of a body which accelerates from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 seconds.

A
7.5
B
5
C
15
D
2.5
Question 95
GK

Propagation of sound can be visualised as propagation of ________ variations in the medium.

A
Energy
B
Power
C
Force
D
Pressure
Question 96
GK

During the night, the direction of the wind would be from the ________.

A
Valleys to the mountains
B
Mountains to the valleys
C
Land to the ocean
D
Ocean to the land
Question 97
GK

Which of the statements given below are correct? A) Julio Granda won the Chess 2017 Women's World Chess Championship. B) Australia hosted the Tennis 2017 Hopman Cup. C) Max Verstappen won the Formula One 2017 Ma laysian Grand Prix.

A
Only A
B
Only C
C
Both B and C
D
A, B and C
Question 98
GK

In HTML, __________ attribute specifies a set of controls that are linked so that only one radio button among each set is selected at a time.

A
TYPE = "TEXT"
B
TYPE = "PASSWORD"
C
TYPE = "RADIO"
D
TYPE = "CHECK BOX"