SSC-CHSL 2024 Questions

10 Jul 2024 • Shift 2

95 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Since childhood, Monty / ate his food / fast and he / will not change.

A
Since childhood, Monty
B
fast and he
C
will not change
D
ate his food
Question 2
Comprehension

The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. After your insistence, / my sister / checked / a mailbox again.

A
a mailbox again
B
After your insistence,
C
my sister
D
checked
Question 3
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. In order to connect / these themes to a wider / historical context, Rahul go / beyond aesthetic analysis. 

A
these themes to a wider
B
historical context, Rahul go
C
In order to connect
D
beyond aesthetic analysis
Question 4
Comprehension

The following sentence has been divided into four parts. Identify the part that contains an error. (A)It is sad / (B) that you / (C) are believing / (D) in superstitious rituals.

A
B
B
C
C
D
D
A
Question 5
Comprehension

Comprehension In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. There is nothing more (1)_________ than when you sit down at your table to study with the most sincere of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand you find your thoughts (2)_________. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to (3)______ your concentration. To begin with, one should (4)______ to create the physical environment that is conducive to (5)_____ thought.  Sub Question : Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

A
frustrating
B
exciting
C
interesting
D
surprising
Question 6
Comprehension

Comprehension In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. There is nothing more (1)_________ than when you sit down at your table to study with the most sincere of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand you find your thoughts (2)_________. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to (3)______ your concentration. To begin with, one should (4)______ to create the physical environment that is conducive to (5)_____ thought.  Sub Question : Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

A
wandering
B
interesting
C
tiring
D
worrying
Question 7
Comprehension

Comprehension In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. There is nothing more (1)_________ than when you sit down at your table to study with the most sincere of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand you find your thoughts (2)_________. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to (3)______ your concentration. To begin with, one should (4)______ to create the physical environment that is conducive to (5)_____ thought.  Sub Question : Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

A
enhance
B
commit
C
discover
D
convince
Question 8
Comprehension

Comprehension In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. There is nothing more (1)_________ than when you sit down at your table to study with the most sincere of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand you find your thoughts (2)_________. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to (3)______ your concentration. To begin with, one should (4)______ to create the physical environment that is conducive to (5)_____ thought.  Sub Question : Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

A
attempt
B
imagine
C
announce
D
lead
Question 9
Comprehension

Comprehension In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. There is nothing more (1)_________ than when you sit down at your table to study with the most sincere of intentions and instead of being able to finish the task at hand you find your thoughts (2)_________. However, there are certain techniques that you can use to (3)______ your concentration. To begin with, one should (4)______ to create the physical environment that is conducive to (5)_____ thought.  Sub Question : Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

A
focussed
B
joyful
C
cautious
D
dazzling
Question 10
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate idiom to fill the blank in the given situation. They were waiting for their family members who were returning from a pilgrimage. Therefore, they were ____________ on the platform.

A
playing a joke
B
rolling up their sleeves
C
running behind time
D
pacing up and down
Question 11
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The removal of ‘petty’ restrictions has made life easier.

A
Big
B
Large
C
Consequential
D
Small
Question 12
Comprehension

Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence. She decided to file a complaint with HR after being 'harrasad' by her supervisor for several weeks.

A
harased
B
harassed
C
harrasd
D
harrasssd
Question 13
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence. This newly arisen evidence ‘could have proved’ to finally put the culprit behind bars.

A
is proof
B
can be proven
C
could have been proven
D
can proof
Question 14
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I am doubtful about his story, though you seem to be __________.

A
pleasant
B
convinced
C
regretting
D
uncertain
Question 15
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. We shall rehearse thrice before the final performance ‘at least we make errors’ in the dialogues.

A
can we make errors
B
lest we make errors
C
but we make errors
D
for we make errors
Question 16
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. The government is planning to ‘abolish’ child care leave for female employees.

A
Eradicate
B
Ensure
C
Establish
D
Encourage
Question 17
Comprehension

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A
Genuine
B
Appraisal
C
Definate
D
Stretch
Question 18
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Seema has a dominating nature, so she wants to __________ of everything in her life.

A
keep record
B
keep touch
C
keep calm
D
keep control
Question 19
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence. Manish told Rounak ‘ time and again’ the ill consequences of his habit of being late to the college.

A
Hardly ever
B
At intervals
C
Repeatedly
D
Not often
Question 20
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the following sentence. They studied ‘during’ three hours.

A
for
B
from
C
by
D
at
Question 21
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.  Powerful

A
Impotent
B
Wild
C
Strong
D
Manly
Question 22
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given sentence. Because the politician made a ‘candid’ speech, he earned the respect of the voters.

A
Deceitful
B
Reckless
C
Reticent
D
Prudent
Question 23
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.  Estimate

A
Profit
B
Appropriate
C
Verify
D
Evaluate
Question 24
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.  Innovate

A
Solve
B
Invent
C
Copy
D
Finance
Question 25
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’ If you ‘give away’ smoking, your health will improve.

A
give off
B
give out
C
No substitution required
D
give up
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

If 20 March 2011 was Sunday, then what was the day of the week on 20 March 2019?

A
Monday
B
Saturday
C
Friday
D
Wednesday
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'PBI' is coded as '27' and 'ZEBRA' is coded as '125'. What is the code for 'BIRD' in the given code language?

A
37
B
25
C
49
D
64
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? JMP UZE FMT QZI?

A
LNP
B
XHN
C
SLP
D
BMX
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

Three statements are followed by conclusions numbered I, II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement. Statements: All water is earth. All earth is fire. Some fire is air. Conclusions: (I) Some air is earth. (II) Some fire is water.

A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Select the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group (Note: the odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster)

A
FJN
B
LHJ
C
QUY
D
XBF
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

Six letters N, P, R, S, T and U are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Which is the letter on the face opposite to the face containing U?

A
S
B
N
C
R
D
P
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?  13, 17, 26, ?, 67, 103, 152

A
42
B
33
C
47
D
59
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?  268, 259, 250, 241, 232, ?

A
220
B
223
C
221
D
224
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

72 is related to 8 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 198 is related to 22.To which of the following is 351 related following the same logic?  (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

A
41
B
37
C
39
D
43
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?  PAZ, REV, TIR, VOL, ?

A
XUE
B
XUF
C
XVF
D
XVG
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and ‘÷ ’ are interchanged?  204 × 4 - 9 ÷ 2+ 6 = ?

A
61
B
64
C
62
D
63
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'cooler is hot' is written as 'tp rc dl' and 'hot weather comes' is written as 'rc dn nz'. How is 'hot' written in the given language?

A
dn
B
dl
C
nz
D
rc
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

What will come in place of '?' in the following equation if '×' and '–' are interchanged and '+' and '÷ ' are interchanged?  36 + 18 × 9 ÷  13 – 19 = ?

A
246
B
234
C
280
D
240
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. ( the words must be considered as meaningful english words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letter/number of consonants/vowels in the world) Strong : Robust  

A
Kind : Generous
B
Brave : Fearful
C
Knowledge : Ignorance
D
Create : Destroy
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

If 'A' stands for '÷ ', 'B' stands for '×', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '–', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 82  B  6   D   114   A  2  C   35 = ?

A
470
B
480
C
450
D
460
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

A
7
B
6
C
8
D
5
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word DETAIL is arranged in the alphabetical order?

A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
None
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed.) (6, 12, 48) (8, 16, 64)

A
(14, 28, 112)
B
(12, 28, 112)
C
(14, 28, 110)
D
(14, 24, 112)
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. ( the words must be considered as meaningful english words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letter/number of consonants/vowels in the world) Dawn – Sunrise

A
Easy – Simple
B
Touch – Toes
C
Old – New
D
Joy – Sad
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, ‘M & N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’ ‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’ ‘M $ N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’ ‘M # N’ means ‘M is the son of N’ Based on the above, how is Q related to N if ‘N # M @ O $ P & Q’?

A
Brother
B
Father
C
Mother’s father
D
Father’s father
Question 46
Arithmetic

P got married 15 years ago. Today her age is 1 3 ⁄ 5 times her age at the time of her marriage. At present her son’s age is 1⁄5 of her age. What was her son’s age 4 years ago as a fraction of P’s age at that time?

A
1⁄9
B
1⁄8
C
1⁄10
D
5⁄9
Question 47
Arithmetic

A cube of edge 4 cm is cut into cubes each of edge of 2 cm. The ratio of the total surface area of one of the small cubes to that of the large cube is equal to:

A
1 : 64
B
1 : 8
C
1 : 16
D
1 : 4
Question 48
Arithmetic

The length (in cm) of a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 14 cm and 5 cm whose centres are separated by a distance of 40 cm is:

A
41 cm
B
√1539 cm
C
√1519 cm
D
40 cm
Question 49
Arithmetic

The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 20π cm². If its radius is 4 cm, then find the volume of the cone.

A
20π cm³
B
16π cm³
C
18π cm³
D
21π cm³
Question 50
Arithmetic

When 12 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to its 40%. Two-fifth of that number is:

A
8
B
20
C
12
D
50
Question 51
Arithmetic

A vendor buys 20 dozen bananas for ₹1,200 and sells 5 dozen for ₹350, then his gain percentage is:

A
15 \(\frac{1}{3}\) %  
B
21 \(\frac{1}{3}\) %
C
16 \(\frac{2}{3}\) %
D
13 \(\frac{2}{3}\) %
Question 52
Arithmetic

The volume of the hemisphere (to the nearest integer) with a radius of 5.5 cm is (use π = 3.14):

A
325 cm³
B
362 cm³
C
378 cm³
D
348 cm³
Question 53
Arithmetic

In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC. D is a point inside the triangle such that ∠BAD = 20° = ∠DCB, ∠CAD = 80°. The value of ∠ABC is:

A
25°
B
20°
C
15°
D
40°
Question 54
Arithmetic

Ratna buys 10 kg of rice for ₹88 per kg and another 20 kg of rice for ₹187 per kg. What is the per kg cost (in ₹) of the total mixture of rice for her?

A
150
B
148
C
154
D
158
Question 55
Arithmetic

P and Q can do a work in 12 days and 9 days, respectively. They both worked together and earned ₹63,000. The share of P (in ₹) is:

A
36,000
B
21,000
C
9,000
D
27,000
Question 56
Arithmetic

A policeman was asked to chase a thief. Before the policeman started the chase, he realised that the thief was 200 metres ahead of him and was running at a speed of 16 km/h. The policeman started the chase at a speed of 20 km/h. How far will the thief run before he is overtaken by the policeman?

A
600 m
B
800 m
C
1000 m
D
700 m
Question 57
Arithmetic

Shopkeeper A marks up his price for an item at 25% and offers a discount of 15%. The same item is marked at 20% by another shopkeeper B and sold at a discount of 12%. Who gets a better deal in terms of % profit and by what profit percentage he sells that item?

A
B by 5.6%
B
B by 0.65%
C
A by 0.55%
D
A by 6.25%
Question 58
Arithmetic

If \( A = \frac{9}{16} \div \frac{25}{36} \), \( B = 9 \div [(16 \div 25) \div 36] \), \( C = [9 \div (16 \div 25)] \div 36 \), \( D = (9 \div 16) \div (25 \div 36) \), then which of the following is true?

A
C and D are equal.
B
A and D are equal.
C
B and D are equal.
D
A and B are equal.
Question 59
Arithmetic

The given pie chart shows the total number of passengers (in percentage) travelling from Ahmedabad junction to various districts. Study the pie chart and answer the question that follows. Total number of passengers travelling from Ahmedabad junction to various districts = 8,000. What is the average number of passengers travelling from Ahmedabad to Surat, Botad and Bhavnagar together?

A
1360
B
1440
C
1510
D
1220
Question 60
Arithmetic

After an increase of 9% in salary, a person received ₹6,300. What was his salary before the increase (consider integral part only)?

A
₹5,779
B
₹5,000
C
₹4,000
D
₹3,879
Question 61
Arithmetic

The following pie chart gives the distribution of constituents in the human body. What is the central angle of the sector showing the distribution of protein and other constituents?

A
34°
B
45°
C
120°
D
108°
Question 62
Arithmetic

The following table shows the production of food grains in a country over five years. What was the percentage increase in the production of rice in 2020-21 in comparison to the previous year?

A
10%
B
20%
C
40%
D
25%
Question 63
Arithmetic

If \( A = 60 \left[ \frac{6}{25} \div \left( \frac{16}{15} \text{ of } \frac{3}{8} \right) + 5 - \left(1 - 2 \frac{1}{12}\right) \right] \), then the sum of the digits of \( A \) is:

A
3
B
5
C
7
D
6
Question 64
Arithmetic

Study the given graph and answer the question that follows. If the income of company A in the year 2012 was ₹6.425 lakh, what was its expenditure in that year?

A
₹4.43 lakh
B
₹4.7 lakh
C
₹5.2 lakh
D
₹4.5 lakh
Question 65
Arithmetic

The ratio of the outer and the inner circumference of a circular path is 7:6. If the path is 45 m wide, then what is the radius (in m) of the inner circle?

A
270
B
240
C
150
D
120
Question 66
Arithmetic

In an election there were three candidates. The first candidate got 40% votes and the second candidate got 35% votes. If the total votes in the election are 50,000, find the number of votes got by the third candidate.

A
13,500
B
1250
C
12,000
D
12,500
Question 67
Arithmetic

If x : y = 5 : 6, then 2x + 3y : 3x + 5y is:

A
18 : 45
B
18 : 35
C
28 : 48
D
28 : 45
Question 68
Arithmetic

A certain sum of money is lent out at simple interest. If that money becomes ₹24,000 in 2 years and ₹32,000 in 4 years, the annual rate of interest is:

A
25%
B
20%
C
16%
D
30%
Question 69
Arithmetic

If f(p) = sin p+2 x + cos p+2 x, then the value of 6f(2) – 4f(4) + 10f(0) is:

A
14
B
12
C
11
D
10
Question 70
Arithmetic

A line from point A is drawn that is tangent to the circle at point B. A secant is also drawn from point A to the circle intersecting it at points C and D. If AB = 42 cm and AC = 21 cm, then what is the ratio between AB and CD

A
2 : 3
B
2 : 5
C
3 : 2
D
3 : 4
Question 71
GK

The Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf of Kutch and Gangetic delta provide ideal conditions for utilising ________ energy.

A
geo thermal
B
atomic
C
tidal
D
solar
Question 72
GK

The founder of the Pala empire was:

A
Gopala
B
Dharmapala
C
Rayala
D
Devapala
Question 73
GK

As of 2022, which among the following is the leading tidal energy generation site of India?

A
Gulf of Kutch
B
Gulf of Mannar
C
Seashore of Maharashtra
D
Sunderbans
Question 74
GK

What is the minimum number of football players required in a team for a match to start?

A
10
B
8
C
7
D
11
Question 75
GK

In the year 2021, the Department of Public Enterprises has now been made part of the ________ Ministry, to speed up the privatisation process and exercise greater financial control over the state-run-enterprises.

A
Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
B
Finance
C
Commerce and Industry
D
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Question 76
GK

Which of the following muscles regulates the exit of food from the stomach into the small intestine?

A
Rectus
B
Pectoralis
C
Gastrocnemius
D
Sphincter
Question 77
GK

Bharatanatyam dance form is associated with:

A
Haryana
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 78
GK

What function does the public key serve in digital signature verification?

A
To decrypt the digital signature
B
To encrypt the digital signature
C
To calculate the hash value of the message or file content
D
To ensure confidentiality during transmission
Question 79
GK

How many basic talams are there in Indian Classical Carnatic music?

A
37
B
7
C
21
D
11
Question 80
GK

‘Tamu Lochar’ is one of the traditional festivals of the ________ of Sikkim. It is celebrated to mark the beginning of their new year, which falls on the 15th day of Pusa, according to the Hindu calendar Vikram Samvat and 30th December in the English calendar.

A
Lepcha community
B
Gurung community
C
Mangar community
D
Bhutia community
Question 81
GK

Which of the following is an example of multi-factor authentication for PC security?

A
Antivirus software
B
Fingerprint scan
C
OS protection
D
Firewall protection
Question 82
GK

Which of the following is the official language of Afghanistan?

A
Dari
B
Turkmen
C
Dhivehi
D
Uzbek
Question 83
GK

Which of the following awards is presented for lifetime achievement in sports and games? It was instituted to honour those sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to the promotion of sports even after their retirement from an active sporting career.

A
Arjuna Award
B
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna
C
Dronacharya Award
D
Dhyan Chand Award
Question 84
GK

With which Gharana is the famous Tarana singer, Pandit Rattan Mohan Sharma associated?

A
Agra Gharana
B
Talwandi Gharana
C
Mewati Gharana
D
Patiala Gharana
Question 85
GK

List I List II i. Balanced Growth Theory a. Rosenstein Rodan ii. Big Push Theory b. Feldman-Mahalanobis iii. Secular Deterioration c. Ragnar Nurkse iv. Capital Goods and Heavy Industry     d. Prebisch-Singer

A
i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
B
i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
C
i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
D
i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Question 86
GK

Which of the following is a feature of Directive Principles of State Policy, and also distinguishes it from Fundamental Rights?

A
It is non-justiciable
B
It is justiciable
C
It is prohibitive in nature
D
It protects the interest of the individual
Question 87
GK

Which was the first socio-religious organisation established in Bombay in 1840 to work for the annihilation of caste?

A
Dharma Sabha
B
Vishwa Jain Sangathan
C
Satyashodhak Samaj
D
Paramhans Mandali
Question 88
GK

The catchphrase of which census is 'Our census, our future'?

A
2011
B
2001
C
1981
D
1991
Question 89
GK

Which of the following is NOT applicable to force?

A
Force may make an object move
B
Force may change the direction of a moving object
C
Force may change the shape of an object
D
Force may increase the mass of the object
Question 90
GK

‘Reservation in promotion’ comes under which Article of the Constitution?

A
Article 14 (4A)
B
Article 15 (3B)
C
Article 16 (4A)
D
Article 19 (2)
Question 91
GK

Who took oath as the Chief Minister of Karnataka, in May 2023?

A
MK Stalin
B
Siddaramaiah
C
DK Shivakumar
D
Mallikarjun Kharge
Question 92
GK

How many times has India hosted the ICC Men’s T-20 Cricket World Cup as of 2023?

A
3
B
2
C
1
D
4
Question 93
GK

Which planet is the second largest planet in our solar system and also has the biggest and brightest rings around it?

A
Earth
B
Jupiter
C
Saturn
D
Uranus
Question 94
GK

Competitive behaviour and competitive market structure are ________ related.

A
inversely
B
directly
C
not
D
proportionately
Question 95
GK

Which of the following is NOT a condition for acquiring the citizenship of India?

A
Domicile
B
Holding property
C
Descent
D
Registration