SSC-CHSL 2024 Questions

11 Jul 2024 • Shift 4

96 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

Select the grammatically INCORRECT sentence.

A
They hardly meet each other.
B
They often meet each other.
C
They quite meet each other.
D
They always meet each other.
Question 2
Comprehension

The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.  The new / secretary / does not likes / me.

A
secretary
B
me
C
does not likes
D
The new
Question 3
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The manager asked / the cooking team,  "Who / among you is to baked / the Christmas cake this year?"

A
the cooking team, "Who
B
Christmas cake this year?
C
The manager asked
D
among you is to baked
Question 4
Comprehension

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.  Geeta was working now but she can be seen swimming in the river every evening.

A
but she can be seen
B
swimming in the
C
Geeta was working now
D
river every evening.
Question 5
Comprehension

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

A
shall be
B
can be
C
will be
D
would be
Question 6
Comprehension

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

A
will be
B
shall be
C
can be
D
would be
Question 7
Comprehension

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

A
for
B
at
C
by
D
from
Question 8
Comprehension

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

A
partially
B
carelessly
C
systematically
D
roughly
Question 9
Comprehension

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

A
such as
B
for as
C
from as
D
same as
Question 10
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Candid

A
Cruel
B
Honest
C
Top
D
Bright
Question 11
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The athlete looked unsettled before the race.

A
Reticent
B
Triumphant
C
Tangent
D
Confident
Question 12
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the given word. Ghastly

A
Agitated
B
Relaxing
C
Pleasant
D
Bitter
Question 13
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. The waters of Germany are abundant in fish, but there are few genera and species in them.

A
flourish
B
allay
C
discord
D
deficient
Question 14
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Compulsory

A
Reliable
B
Factional
C
Full-fledged
D
Optional
Question 15
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence. The experienced surgeon handled the delicate procedure with care and precision.

A
seasoned
B
untrained
C
unskilled
D
amateur
Question 16
Comprehension

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a spelling error. I was alarmed lest we should be wreked.

A
I was
B
we should
C
alarmed lest
D
be wreked.
Question 17
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence. I have left it to his discretion to accept or decline my offer.

A
Judgement
B
Wisdom
C
Inattention
D
Calculation
Question 18
Comprehension

Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options. The advertisement of vacancies in education sector has received huge response.

A
Vacancies
B
Vecencies
C
Vacencis
D
Vacansies
Question 19
Comprehension

Based on the situation in the sentence, select the most appropriate idiom. After many years of rivalry, the two schools decided to _______ and participate in a National Event together.

A
bell the cat
B
bury the hatchet
C
be in the doldrums
D
go cold turkey
Question 20
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Revolution

A
Order
B
Gyration
C
Harmony
D
Stagnation
Question 21
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The artist received a __________ from the audience.

A
round of applause
B
plenty of applause
C
bunch of applause
D
handful of applause
Question 22
Comprehension

Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the idioms and phrases underlined in the given sentence. A jack of all trades cannot survive in the world of specialisation.

A
A businessman
B
A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any
C
A good communicator
D
An expert of many jobs
Question 23
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Well, I prefer eating at home from eating out .

A
to eating out
B
and eating out
C
than eating out
D
while eating out
Question 24
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Do not later about the street.

A
litre about
B
latter about
C
litter about
D
loiter around
Question 25
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’. I opened the box beneath the table and took of a book, the Materia Medica.

A
took in
B
took out
C
No substitution required
D
take off
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

What would be the letter on the opposite side of ‘P’ if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

A
M
B
K
C
L
D
N
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

ULQ is related to GJHM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HIKN is related to FGL. To which of the following is EFHK related, following the same logic?

A
CEDI
B
CEDI
C
CDEF
D
CDFI
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

CYNF is related to NCJQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GRTM is related to RMTP. To which of the following is CZXP related, following the same logic?

A
NXAV
B
NAVK
C
NKVA
D
NKAV
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following letter-clusters can replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?  JMD, OHJ, ?, YXV, DSB

A
RST
B
VCP
C
TCP
D
AOZ
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

What would be the Roman numeral on the opposite side of ‘V’ if the given sheet is folded to form a cube?

A
VIII
B
VI
C
X
D
VII
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)  (4, 8, 34) (7, 14, 56)

A
(11, 33, 88)
B
(11, 33, 77)
C
(11, 22, 77)
D
(11, 22, 88)
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

In a certain language, ‘protect your health’ is written as ‘Df Bk’ and ‘health is wealth’ is written as ‘Po Tu’. How is ‘healthy’ written in the given language?

A
Tu
B
Df
C
Bk
D
Po
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?  QRS, MXB, IDK, ETJ, ?

A
AAC
B
CPAAPC
C
APC
D
PCA
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?  87 + 3 + 35 – 88 × 11 = ?

A
232
B
233
C
234
D
231
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language:  A % B means ‘A is the mother of B’,  A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’,  A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and  A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.  Based on the above, how is P related to T if P & Q % R # S @ T?

A
Wife’s mother’s brother
B
Wife’s father
C
Wife’s mother’s father
D
Wife’s brother
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?  (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

A
ORT
B
DGH
C
JMN
D
UXY
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?  86, 88, 90, 92, 94, ?

A
96
B
98
C
99
D
97
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

If 25 August 2006 was Friday, then what was the day of the week on 25 August 2018?

A
Sunday
B
Thursday
C
Saturday
D
Wednesday
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

Each of the letters in the word FRANCHISE are arranged from left to right in alphabetical order to form a new word. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is fifth from the left and the one which is third from the right in the newly formed word?

A
Five
B
Six
C
Seven
D
Four
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements. Statements: No rose is an orchid. All roses are lilies. All lilies are lotuses. Conclusions: I. Some lilies are orchids. II. Some lotuses are orchids. III. All lilies are orchids.

A
Both conclusions II and III follow.
B
Both conclusions I and II follow.
C
Neither conclusions I, II, nor III follows.
D
Both conclusions I and III follow.
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’, and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, then the resultant of which of the following will be 421?

A
63 B 7 A 125 D 5 C 5
B
63 C 7 D 125 A 5 B 5
C
63 B 7 D 125 A 5 C 5
D
63 A 7 D 125 B 5 C 5
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?  125 ÷ 5 + 19 – 190 × 19 = ?

A
626
B
606
C
616
D
636
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

78 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 67 is related to 26. To which of the following is 54 related, following the same logic?

A
28
B
20
C
16
D
18
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

A
5
B
4
C
8
D
6
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? \([\frac{5}{9}] ,[\frac{14}{9}], [\frac{23}{9}], [\frac{32}{9}], [\frac{41}{9}], ?\)

A
\([\frac{47}{9}]\)
B
\([\frac{44}{9}]\)
C
\([\frac{50}{9}]\)
D
\([\frac{51}{9}]\)
Question 46
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, ‘mix jaggery well’ is written as ‘rb co ot’ and ‘well done boss’ is written as ‘cx rb op’. How is ‘well’ written in the given language?

A
ot
B
co
C
cx
D
rb
Question 47
Arithmetic

The salary of employees in a factory was reduced by 20% due to economic crisis. In order to have their salary back to original amount, it must be raised by:

A
25%
B
20%
C
12.5%
D
40%
Question 48
Arithmetic

The number 611611611611 is: (a)divisible by both 6 and 11  (b)neither divisible by 6 nor by 11  (c)divisible by 6 only  (d)divisible by 11 only  

A
b
B
a
C
d
D
c
Question 49
Arithmetic

A right-angled triangle of area 600 m² is to be made such that the hypotenuse is double the base. For the triangle, the hypotenuse is ______ more than the base.

A
24.36 m
B
26.32 m
C
22.32 m
D
20.36 m
Question 50
Arithmetic

An election was held between two candidates. The winning candidate scored 54% of the valid votes and won by 88 votes. If 58 votes were declared invalid, then find the total number of votes polled in the election.

A
1156
B
1850
C
2000
D
1158
Question 51
Arithmetic

Tom travelled 285 km in 6 hours. In his total travelling, he travelled the first part by bus at 40 km/hr and the remaining part by train at 55 km/hr. How much distance has he travelled by train?

A
165 km
B
155 km
C
135 km
D
120 km
Question 52
Arithmetic

What should be added to each term of the ratio 5:11 so that the ratio becomes 3:5?

A
6
B
4
C
5
D
2
Question 53
Arithmetic

The volume of a rectangular block is 12288 m³. Its dimensions are in the ratio of 4:3:2. If the entire surface is polished at the rate of 2 paise per m², then find the total cost of polishing.

A
₹33.28
B
₹11.14
C
₹66.56
D
₹44.42
Question 54
Arithmetic

If tanA + sinA = x, tanA - sinA = y, what is the value of x² - y²?

A
√xy
B
4√xy
C
4√(x/y)
D
2√(x/y)
Question 55
Arithmetic

My father is presently 25 years older than me. The sum of our ages 5 years ago was 39 years. Find my present age.

A
15 years
B
20 years
C
12 years
D
13 years
Question 56
Arithmetic

The marked price of a table lamp is ₹2,165. During the festive season, it is sold for ₹1,710.35. Find the percentage discount offered.

A
22.5%
B
21%
C
20.5%
D
18%
Question 57
Arithmetic

If the price of a commodity is increased by 36%, by what percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal place) should its consumption be decreased so that the expenditure of the commodity stays the same?

A
36%
B
32%
C
26.5%
D
29.5%
Question 58
Arithmetic

The given chart represents the sales of automobiles in India (by type, in million units) from the year 2011 to 2014. Study the chart and answer the question that follows. The percentage increase in the sales in 2013 over the previous year was the maximum for which of the categories of vehicles?

A
Passenger vehicles
B
Two wheelers and Passenger vehicles
C
Commercial vehicles
D
Two wheelers
Question 59
Arithmetic

In ΔABC, D and E are points on sides AB and AC, such that DE || BC. If AD = x, DB = x - 3, AE = x + 3 and EC = x - 2, then the value of x is:

A
4.0
B
4.5
C
5.2
D
4.2
Question 60
Arithmetic

What is the area (in square units) of the sector if the radius of the circle is given to be 24 units and the arc length is 7.5 units?

A
45
B
180
C
90
D
135
Question 61
Arithmetic

How much simple interest will ₹5,000 earn in 14 months at a 12% interest rate per annum?

A
₹600
B
₹500
C
₹800
D
₹700
Question 62
Arithmetic

Refer to the bar graph below and answer the question that follows. What is the difference between the number of students enrolled in Institute A in 2015 and 2017 and that in Institute B in 2016, 2018 and 2019?

A
40
B
100
C
75
D
150
Question 63
Arithmetic

X, Y and Z can do a work in 24 days, 5 days and 12 days, respectively. In how many days can they do the same work if they work together?

A
1/24 days
B
7/24 days
C
3 1/13 days
D
4 days
Question 64
Arithmetic

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination. The numbers in the brackets give the maximum marks in each subject. How many students secured a raw score of 135 in Maths?

A
3
B
2
C
2
D
1
Question 65
Arithmetic

The following bar graph represents the total number of students enrolled and the number of students who got campus placement in six different engineering colleges A, B, C, D, E, and F. Study the graph carefully and answer the question below: What per cent (correct up to two decimal places) of total enrolled students have got campus placements in colleges A, C, and F?

A
82.78%
B
86.67%
C
79.67%
D
77.78%
Question 66
Arithmetic

If  \(\frac{15}{8} +[{ \frac{4}{5} of  \frac{5}{12} \div ( 1\frac{1}{15} ) } \times  1\frac{7}{12}]\)  is expressed in the form of \( \frac{a}{b} \) where a and b are integers and relatively prime to each other, the value \( 4b - a \) is:

A
225
B
189
C
313
D
164
Question 67
Arithmetic

If L is the mid-point of side BC of △ABC and the area of △ABL is 15 cm², then the area (in sq cm) of △ABC is:

A
30
B
27
C
32
D
25
Question 68
Arithmetic

If 10% of 24% of x is 240, then x = ?

A
100
B
100000
C
1000
D
10000
Question 69
Arithmetic

A cylindrical candle, 14 cm in diameter and length 2 cm is melted to form a cuboid candle of dimensions 7 cm × 11 cm × 2 cm. How many cuboidal candles can be obtained?

A
4
B
2
C
3
D
5
Question 70
Arithmetic

In an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, the length of its longest side AB is 50 cm and one of the other two sides is 42 cm. If the area of the triangle is 294 cm², what is the length (in cm) of its third side?

A
15√21
B
2√58
C
12√43
D
8√35
Question 71
Arithmetic

The average of 50 numbers is 23. If each number is multiplied by 13, then the new average is:

A
219
B
299
C
650
D
88
Question 72
GK

The original constitution did NOT mention any fundamental duty because:

A
it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties forcefully
B
initially fundamental duties were not expected to be performed
C
initially fundamental duties were punishable as per the constitution
D
it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly
Question 73
GK

Which of the following is the fastest way to open the Help window in Microsoft Word?

A
Type ‘help’ in the search bar and then, press Enter
B
Click the Help button on the ribbon
C
Press F1
D
Click the Microsoft Office button and then, click Help
Question 74
GK

Who was the first person to conduct a systematic study of chromosomes during division and called this process mitosis?

A
Walther Flemming
B
Thomas Hunt Morgan
C
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
D
Friedrich Miescher
Question 75
GK

According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the largest Buddhist population?

A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
West Bengal
Question 76
GK

Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern most part of India?

A
Jaintia Hills
B
Garo Hills
C
Patkai Bum Hills
D
Khasi Hills
Question 77
GK

Who captained India to victory in the 2011 Cricket World Cup final win over Sri Lanka?

A
Sourav Ganguly
B
Rahul Dravid
C
Sachin Tendulkar
D
Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Question 78
GK

With reference to 'Saila dance' consider the following statements and select the correct option.  a) A group comprising of male performers.  b) The dance is performed with bamboo sticks.  c) It is performed after the cutting of crops

A
Both b and c
B
Both a and b
C
Both a and c
D
a, b, c
Question 79
GK

Which of the following measures can be adopted by the government to reduce revenue deficit?

A
Offering freebies
B
Increasing subsidies
C
Tax reforms
D
Increasing money supply
Question 80
GK

Which British colonel is remembered as the Butcher of Amritsar for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919?

A
Robert Clive
B
Reginald Dyer
C
William Slim
D
William Birdwood
Question 81
GK

Which function is used to calculate the maximum value in a selected column in MS Excel?

A
Auto max
B
Max
C
Auto high
D
High
Question 82
GK

In Equestrian sports, ______ occurs when a horse or rider lowers an element of a jump that establishes the height of an obstacle.

A
canter
B
knockdown
C
curb
D
clean round
Question 83
GK

In cricket, a fast, head-high delivery of the ball is referred to as ________.

A
grubber
B
leg-bye
C
duck
D
bouncer
Question 84
GK

The Press and Registration of Books (PRB) Act was enacted in which year?

A
1857
B
1877
C
1887
D
1867
Question 85
GK

From which book is the national song of India compiled?

A
Katha Upanishad
B
Mandukya Upanishad
C
Anand Math
D
Bharat Bharti
Question 86
GK

Every year in the month of February, this camel festival is organised by Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation in __________.

A
Barmer
B
Jodhpu
C
Jaisalmer
D
Bikaner
Question 87
GK

In which of the following liquids would anthracene dissolve easily?

A
Water
B
Methane
C
Sodium chloride
D
Benzene
Question 88
GK

Who among the following is related to Hindustani classical singing?

A
Ramanuj Iyengar
B
Aruna Sairam
C
Srinavasa Iyer
D
Mallikarjun Mansur
Question 89
GK

In March 2023, the Uttarakhand government had approved how much horizontal reservation for statehood activists in state government jobs?

A
15%
B
8%
C
10%
D
5%
Question 90
GK

According to Census 2011, which union territory recorded the highest female literacy rate in India?

A
Puducherry
B
Chandigarh
C
Lakshadweep
D
Delhi
Question 91
GK

Which star is also known as the ‘Pole Star’?

A
The South star
B
The West star
C
The North star
D
The East star
Question 92
GK

Who amongst the following Delhi Sultanate rulers sent his army under Malik Kafur’s command to conquer South India?

A
Alauddin Khilji
B
Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
C
Qutb-al-din Aibak
D
Iltutmish
Question 93
GK

Who among the following is NOT associated with the Green Revolution?

A
Chidambaram Subramaniam
B
MS Swaminathan
C
P Chidambaram
D
Norman Borlaug
Question 94
GK

Which group of states was concentrated in the cotton production in the early years to develop textile industry?

A
Punjab and Haryana
B
Bihar and West Bengal
C
Maharashtra and Gujarat
D
West Bengal and Odisha
Question 95
GK

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of Indian Constitution was passed in the year _______.

A
1978
B
1977
C
1979
D
1976
Question 96
GK

MLAs in which of the following states/UTs received an increase of about 66% in salaries and allowances w.e.f. 14 February 2023?

A
Bihar
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Delhi
D
Lakshadweep