SSC-CHSL 2024 Questions

3 Jul 2024 • Shift 4

94 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error. I had seen / her with her mother / in the cinema hall / yesterday.

A
in the cinema hall
B
her with her mother
C
yesterday
D
I had seen
Question 2
Comprehension

Select the option to replace the incorrect word in the following sentence: Chotu is a bright young child, who yearn to go to school but works in his uncle’s dhaba.

A
worked
B
working
C
yearns
D
yearned
Question 3
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: He _________ a long distance.

A
runned
B
running
C
ran
D
run
Question 4
Comprehension

The following sentence has been divided into three segments. One of them may contain an adverbial usage error. Select the option that has the segment with the error. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer. Mr. Narayanan / is a rather / lazy man.

A
No error
B
Mr. Narayanan
C
is a rather
D
lazy man.
Question 5
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

A
the
B
a
C
an
D
No article
Question 6
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

A
are made
B
had make
C
was make
D
will made
Question 7
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

A
on
B
out
C
of
D
for
Question 8
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

A
can stopped
B
may stopped
C
should stop
D
have stop
Question 9
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

A
nurturing
B
nature
C
nurture
D
natural
Question 10
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: The boxer was knocked out cold by a powerful ________ punch to the jaw.

A
write
B
wright
C
rite
D
right
Question 11
Comprehension

Select the option that can substitute the bracketed word segment meaningfully: If you behave well and exhibit good manners, then (people will be likely to remember you) in a positive way.

A
people likely you remember
B
people are like remember
C
people will like in remember
D
people are likely to remember you
Question 12
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence: Delivering that furniture to the tenth floor without the lift and an incline is incredibly foolish and next to impossible.

A
like a tree known by its fruits
B
like nailing jelly to the tree
C
as tight as the bark of the tree
D
like going between the bark and the tree
Question 13
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence: This makes readers contemplate the motives people have for performing acts of charity.

A
understate
B
follow up
C
overlook
D
deviate
Question 14
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a spelling error: In all instances of frustrasion, / you will always find / the anger directed towards / a single person only.

A
the anger directed towards
B
In all instances of frustrasion
C
you will always find
D
a single person only
Question 15
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: The movie ‘Desperate Ghosts’ was watched by my younger brother and he was ____________ horror.

A
filled with
B
filled of
C
filled on
D
filled off
Question 16
Comprehension

Read the sentence carefully and select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined part: The sudden declaration of war between two countries led to a disarray .

A
peaceful treaty
B
disorderly situation
C
refined argument
D
elusive situation
Question 17
Comprehension

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word:

A
Acknowledgment
B
Apparent
C
Fulfil
D
Conscientous
Question 18
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank: This gun should be handled with care and ____________.

A
nip in the bud
B
shot for safety
C
mince the matters
D
kept at arm’s length
Question 19
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘echoed’ to fill in the blank: The thunderous applause ________ through the stadium.

A
reverberated
B
recoiled
C
bounced
D
pulsed
Question 20
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Chaste

A
Flashy
B
Corrupt
C
Sullied
D
Pure
Question 21
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Cheerful

A
Sunny
B
Hilarious
C
Gloomy
D
Joyful
Question 22
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the sentence: He tried to improve the working conditions in his office.

A
Spatter
B
Sprinkle
C
Specify
D
Spoil
Question 23
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence: It was her who first saw the criminal.

A
she
B
them
C
hers
D
him
Question 24
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence: Can I please request you all to stand up?

A
require
B
plead
C
claim
D
petition
Question 25
Comprehension

Read the sentence carefully and select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined part: Greta Thunberg’s tirade against environmental degeneration shocked the world leaders.

A
minute observation
B
debatable account
C
long and angry speech
D
innate liberal opinion
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? BOJ, FQO, JST, NUY, ?

A
RVB
B
QWD
C
QVC
D
RWD
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

‘P + F’ means ‘P is the son of F’ ‘P – F’ means ‘P is the wife of F’ ‘P × F’ means ‘P is the brother of F’ ‘P ÷ F’ means ‘P is the mother of F’ ‘P = F’ means ‘P is the sister of F’. What does ‘K = R ÷ M’ mean?

A
K is the daughter of M
B
K is the aunt (mother’s sister) of M
C
K is the sister of M
D
K is the niece of M
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, ‘BABE’ is coded as ‘20’ and ‘EACH’ is coded as ‘34’. What is the code for ‘FACT’ in the given code language?

A
63
B
62
C
64
D
60
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

129 is related to 387 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 164 is related to 492. To which of the following is 148 related, following the same logic?

A
444
B
468
C
352
D
362
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

If ‘R’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘K’ stands for ‘×’, ‘G’ stands for ‘+’, and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 32 G 15 R 15 D 17 K 18 = ?

A
–456
B
–273
C
–879
D
–235
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 244, 232.1, 220.2, 208.3, 196.4, ?

A
176.5
B
172.5
C
180.5
D
184.5
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 59 + 39 – 63 × 21 ÷ 26 = ?

A
98
B
96
C
90
D
93
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

In a certain language: A & B means A is the wife of B, A ÷ B means A is the mother of B, A × B means A is the son of B, A + B means A is the sister of B, A @ B means A is the father of B. If A @ B & C @ D + K ÷ F, how is C related to K?

A
Mother
B
Father
C
Sister
D
Brother
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements: Statements: Some carrots are onions. All onions are potatoes. All potatoes are radish. Conclusions: I. Some carrots are radish. II. All onions are radish. III. No carrot is a potato.

A
Only conclusion II follows.
B
Only conclusion I follows.
C
Both conclusions I and II follow.
D
Only conclusion III follows.
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, ‘RISK’ is coded as ‘3921’ and ‘KIRT’ is coded as ‘1693’. How is ‘S’ coded in the given language?

A
2
B
3
C
1
D
6
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

If 10 October 2003 was a Friday, then what was the day of the week on 8 October 2015?

A
Thursday
B
Tuesday
C
Friday
D
Monday
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 105 ÷ 2 + 4 – 120 × 6 = ?

A
266
B
126
C
216
D
226
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets: (4, 16, 32) and (7, 49, 98)

A
(12, 144, 288)
B
(12, 144, 278)
C
(12, 134, 288)
D
(14, 144, 288)
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

This question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship to each other. Select the pair which does NOT have the same relationship: Allure : Repulse 1) Creation : Destruction 2) Fluctuate : Stabilize 3) Immense : Huge 4) Notion : Reality

A
Creation : Destruction
B
Fluctuate : Stabilize
C
Immense : Huge
D
Notion : Reality
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? WYS, BDX, GIC, LNH, ?

A
QSM
B
QMS
C
SMQ
D
PSM
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of X in the given series? 3, 9, 21, 41, 71, X

A
110
B
120
C
113
D
121
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A
10
B
11
C
9
D
12
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

ADFI is related to CFHK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EHJM is related to GJLO. To which of the following is ILNQ related, following the same logic?

A
KMPS
B
KNQT
C
KNQS
D
KNPS
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

If 19 July 2000 is Wednesday, then what will be the day of the week on 17 March 2015?

A
Wednesday
B
Friday
C
Tuesday
D
Sunday
Question 45
Arithmetic

In an engineering college, there are four branches namely Computer Science (CS), Electronics (EC), Civil (CE), and Mechanical (ME). The respective ratio of the number of students in these branches is 11 : 5 : 6 : 7. What is the percentage of students belonging to CS and ME branches in the college (correct up to two decimal places)?

A
61.07%
B
61.37%
C
62.07%
D
62.37%
Question 46
Arithmetic

If the perimeters of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 4 : 7, and the sum of the areas is 195 cm 2 , then what is 1/3 of the difference between the areas (in cm 2 ) of the two triangles?

A
33
B
54
C
99
D
63
Question 47
Arithmetic

Riya and Sangeeta can finish a work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. Riya started the work alone, and then after 3 days, Sangeeta joined Riya. They both finished the remaining work. How long did the total work last?

A
4 1 ⁄ 2 days
B
4 5 ⁄ 7 days
C
4 3 ⁄ 4 days
D
4 2 ⁄ 3 days
Question 48
Arithmetic

Four cubes each of volume 216 cubic cm are joined end to end to form a new solid. The surface area of the new solid is:

A
1296 cm 2
B
648 cm 2
C
672 cm 2
D
324 cm 2
Question 49
Arithmetic

If the area of a triangle whose base measures 6 cm is 18 cm 2 , then its height is:

A
6 cm
B
3.1 cm
C
2.2 cm
D
9 cm
Question 50
Arithmetic

There are 160 multiple-choice questions in a test. 4 marks are allotted for a correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for a wrong answer or unattempted question from the total score of correct answers. If a candidate scored 400 marks in the test, how many questions did he answer correctly?

A
110
B
115
C
112
D
120
Question 51
Arithmetic

In an election between two candidates, one got 60% of the total valid votes, and 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes were 8400, how many valid votes did the other candidate get?

A
2856
B
2998
C
3117
D
3213
Question 52
Arithmetic

When x is added to each of the numbers 7, 11, 18, and 23, the numbers obtained are in proportion. What is the mean proportional between ( x - 1) and (2 x - 10)?

A
68
B
78
C
98
D
48
Question 53
Arithmetic

Read the given information and answer the question that follows. If 400 chocolate ice creams are sold in a day, how many vanilla ice creams are sold?

A
100
B
350
C
300
D
400
Question 54
Arithmetic

Find the total number of students selected for cricket and tennis if the distribution of 1500 students in a school is shown for different games is shown in the following figure. Find the total number of students selected for Cricket and Tennis.

A
825
B
525
C
415
D
625
Question 55
Arithmetic

Simplify the following expression: 2 1 ⁄ 4 × 3 1 ⁄ 5 + 5 1 ⁄ 6 of 2 4 ⁄ 31 ÷ 3 2 ⁄ 3 + 4 1 ⁄ 7 of 1 6 ⁄ 29

A
13 1 ⁄ 5
B
16 1 ⁄ 5
C
14 1 ⁄ 5
D
15 1 ⁄ 5
Question 56
Arithmetic

△ABC ∼ △EDF, and area(△ABC) : area(△EDF) = 9 : 4. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 8 cm, and CA = 10 cm, then DF is equal to:

A
3 1 ⁄ 2 cm
B
4 1 ⁄ 4 cm
C
5 1 ⁄ 3 cm
D
4 2 ⁄ 3 cm
Question 57
Arithmetic

If α + β = 45° and (tanα + 1)(tanβ + 1) = 2x, then x is:

A
2
B
-1
C
0
D
1
Question 58
Arithmetic

The bar graph shows the production (in lakh units) of kitchen appliances manufactured by three companies, A, B, and C, over a period of six years from 2012 to 2017. In which year was the percentage of rise or fall in production from the previous year the maximum for Company C?

A
2013
B
2017
C
2016
D
2015
Question 59
Arithmetic

A seller decreased the selling price of each item from Rs. 5,000 to Rs. 4,680, by which his loss percentage increased by 4%. If he has to get a 4% profit, then the selling price of the item should be:

A
Rs. 7,280
B
Rs. 8,320
C
Rs. 8,840
D
Rs. 7,800
Question 60
Arithmetic

What is the discount that Rohan should offer on the remaining ₹8,000 of a laptop priced at ₹48,000, given that he has already given a 12% discount on the first ₹28,000 and 8% discount on the next ₹12,000 to match the discount amount of 9.5% given on the total price?

A
₹402
B
₹420
C
₹240
D
₹204
Question 61
Arithmetic

A class of 25 students took an English test. 15 students had an average score of 80. The other students had an average score of 60. What is the average score of the whole class?

A
80
B
76
C
74
D
72
Question 62
Arithmetic

The graph shows the export of three companies (A,B, and C) over the years (in Rs. crore). In which year was the difference between the exports from companies A and B the minimum?

A
1997
B
1998
C
1995
D
1994
Question 63
Arithmetic

The simple interest on a sum for 8 years is 4/5 of the sum. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A
5%
B
15%
C
10%
D
20%
Question 64
Arithmetic

Two circles with centers O and A touch each other externally. The radius of the first circle with center O is 6 cm, and the radius of the second circle with center A is 3 cm. Find the length of their common tangent CB (in centimeters).

A
3√2
B
4√3
C
4√2
D
6√2
Question 65
Arithmetic

Two parallel chords of length 8 units each are 6 units away from each other in a circle. What is the radius of the circle in units?

A
3
B
6
C
5
D
4
Question 66
Arithmetic

When the integer n is divided by 18, the quotient is x and the remainder is 6. When the integer n is divided by 25, the quotient is y and the remainder is 15. Which of the following is true?

A
25y + 18x = 9
B
25y − 18x = 9
C
18x + 25y = 9
D
18x − 25y = 9
Question 67
Arithmetic

Rakesh is the owner of a rectangular field. Due to the construction of an expressway, the length and breadth of his field are reduced by 30% and 10%, respectively. What is the percentage decrease in the area of his field?

A
40%
B
35%
C
37%
D
33%
Question 68
Arithmetic

Ram and Shyam start walking from the same place in opposite directions. If Shyam walks at a speed of 5 1 ⁄ 4 km/hr and Ram at a speed of 3 km/hr, then after how much time will they be 44 km apart?

A
3 hours 20 minutes
B
5 hours 20 minutes
C
6 hours 20 minutes
D
4 hours 20 minutes
Question 69
Arithmetic

A cylindrical rod of iron whose height is twelve times its radius is melted and cast into spherical balls, each of one-third the radius of the cylinder. Find the number of spherical balls.

A
224
B
212
C
243
D
198
Question 70
GK

What is the name of the festival that ends the Holy Ramzan month?

A
Eid-Ul-Fitr
B
Muharram
C
Eid-Ul-Zuha
D
Bakrid
Question 71
GK

The Palas were:

A
a dynasty that appeared in Puri
B
a dynasty that first appeared in Cambodia
C
a dynasty that united eastern India and Burma
D
a dynasty that appeared in eastern India
Question 72
GK

The largest inland salt lake ‘Sambhar’ is located in the ______ of India.

A
north-east
B
south-east
C
south-west
D
north-west
Question 73
GK

In India, the musical instrument “Flute” is also known as ______.

A
Tabla
B
Manjira
C
Bansuri
D
Veena
Question 74
GK

According to the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (2022), on the basis of four indicators—nutrition, cooking fuel, sanitation, and housing—how many poor people live in India?

A
24.4 million
B
54.4 million
C
44.4 million
D
34.4 million
Question 75
GK

In Microsoft Excel, which chart type is best suited for comparing proportions or percentages of a whole?

A
Pie Chart
B
Bar Chart
C
Scatter Chart
D
Line Chart
Question 76
GK

Who wrote the book ‘Gulamgiri’?

A
Jyotiba Phule
B
Dwarkanath Tagore
C
Swami Shraddhanand
D
BR Ambedkar
Question 77
GK

In cost theory, the usual shape of the ______ curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

A
Total Cost
B
Fixed Cost
C
Average Fixed Cost
D
Variable Cost
Question 78
GK

Which of the following sequences is correct, according to taxonomy?

A
Class-Phylum-Family-Order-Genus-Species
B
Family-Phylum-Class-Order-Genus-Species
C
Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
D
Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species
Question 79
GK

Which of the following teams won the IPL 2023 championship?

A
Gujarat Titans
B
Mumbai Indians
C
Lucknow Super Giants
D
Chennai Super Kings
Question 80
GK

Norman Ernest Borlaug was awarded the _______ in 1970 for his contributions to the green revolution.

A
Nobel Peace Prize
B
Nobel Prize in Physiology
C
Nobel Prize in Chemistry
D
Nobel Prize in Physics
Question 81
GK

Who among the following discovered that a wire carrying electric current can attract or repel another wire next to it that's also carrying electric current?

A
Michael Faraday
B
Andre-Marie Ampere
C
Guglielmo Marconi
D
James Maxwell
Question 82
GK

Which Articles of the Constitution deal with citizenship?

A
Articles 5 to 11
B
Articles 5 to 10
C
Articles 5 to 8
D
Articles 5 to 9
Question 83
GK

The establishment of Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commissions, and Joint Public Service Commissions falls under which of the following features of the Constitution of India?

A
Federalism
B
Parliamentary Government
C
Directive Principles of State Policy
D
Fundamental Rights
Question 84
GK

Chhannulal Mishra is related to which Musical Lineage?

A
Agra Musical Family
B
Delhi Musical Family
C
Kirana Musical Family
D
Jaipur Musical Family
Question 85
GK

According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following states is the most urbanised?

A
Goa
B
Kerala
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Punjab
Question 86
GK

On 7 November 2022, the Supreme Court of India upheld the reservations for the weaker sections (EWS). Which of the following amendments brought this reservation in the first place?

A
103rd Amendment of the Constitution
B
102nd Amendment of the Constitution
C
104th Amendment of the Constitution
D
101st Amendment of the Constitution
Question 87
GK

The moderate margin of a page in MS Word can be applied to the page from which of the following?

A
Page Layout Tab
B
Design Tab
C
Review Tab
D
View Tab
Question 88
GK

Who was the first Indian woman wrestler to win a medal at the Olympics?

A
Alka Tomar
B
Babita Phogat
C
Geeta Phogat
D
Sakshi Malik
Question 89
GK

‘Chang dance’ is popular in the state of:

A
Goa
B
Tripura
C
Rajasthan
D
Bihar
Question 90
GK

Who among the following cabinet ministers was appointed as the Governor of Karnataka in July 2021?

A
Arjun Munda
B
Rajendra Vishwanath
C
Thawarchand Gehlot
D
Hari Babu Kambhampati
Question 91
GK

Which dwarf planet orbits the sun in 310 years at a distance between 38.5 to 53 AU?

A
Ceres
B
Eris
C
Makemake
D
Pluto
Question 92
GK

Which country hosted the first FIFA World Cup?

A
Brazil
B
Italy
C
Uruguay
D
France
Question 93
GK

Dinesh K Tripathi was appointed as _______ in January 2024.

A
Vice Chief of Naval Staff
B
Chief of Naval Staff
C
Rear Admiral
D
Chief of Personnel
Question 94
GK

According to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, what was the total food grain production of India in the year 2022-23?

A
2266.23 lakh tonnes
B
2876.17 lakh tonnes
C
2491.58 lakh tonnes
D
3296.87 lakh tonnes