SSC-CHSL 2024 Questions

9 Jul 2024 • Shift 4

95 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Comprehension

The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. A great / culture of hospitality of / the Spanish / is well-known.

A
the Spanish
B
culture of hospitality of
C
A great
D
is well-known
Question 2
Comprehension

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. After a while, / she look up / and saw that / it was getting dark.

A
and saw that
B
it was getting dark
C
she look up
D
After a while
Question 3
Comprehension

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. There was a gang of thieves spotted at our local bank, make sure to be careful.

A
at our local bank
B
There was a gang
C
make sure to be careful 
D
of thieves spotted
Question 4
Comprehension

Select the option that will improve the given sentence by using the most appropriate verb. Alexa have being working as a teacher for five years now.

A
Alexa has been working as a teacher for five years now.
B
Alexa has being working as a teacher for five years now.
C
Alexa is being working as a teacher for five years now.
D
Alexa was being working as a teacher for five years now.
Question 5
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

A
do not
B
cannot
C
hasn't
D
can
Question 6
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

A
the
B
which
C
a
D
very
Question 7
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

A
some
B
the
C
that
D
all
Question 8
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

A
in
B
with
C
at
D
for
Question 9
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

A
started
B
start
C
starting
D
starts
Question 10
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.  Shantanu always buries his head in the sand whenever he explains his professional failures to his father.

A
hides from the truth
B
shows a blind eye against social issues
C
escapes from all the difficulties
D
blames the others for his mistakes
Question 11
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.  The cat's entry into the store room was ________.

A
quiet
B
quite
C
cute
D
quit
Question 12
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.  The _______ of the whale is 2 tonnes.

A
wait
B
weight
C
vet
D
wet
Question 13
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.  Grasslands should not be foraged and some places are to be closed for grazing.

A
over-grazed and some areas should
B
cut and few areas
C
grazed and some places is
D
planted or
Question 14
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.  Things that do not come from the ground not safe to compost.

A
has not been safe
B
are not safe
C
is not safe
D
be not safe
Question 15
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.  He got medals time after time by following the instructions of his mentor.

A
Repeatedly
B
Twice
C
Rarely
D
Once
Question 16
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. I quietly went out at the door into the veranda.

A
No substitution required
B
by
C
through
D
from
Question 17
Comprehension

Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.  A natural clamity causing huge destruction and loss of life and property.

A
calamity
B
calaminty
C
calamaty
D
climanity
Question 18
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. We should not run after transient pleasures of the world.

A
Unnatural
B
Sinful
C
Permanent
D
Joyful
Question 19
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Luminous.

A
Radiant
B
Laborious
C
Luxurious
D
Amiable
Question 20
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.  Modest stores and welcoming residents populated the charming tiny town.

A
delightful
B
unpleasant
C
hideous
D
nasty
Question 21
Comprehension

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.  King Zheng is known to lead an army of a million armoured soldiers, a thousand chariots and ten thousand horses in his _______ to conquer the neighbouring kingdoms.

A
Mission
B
Kingdoms
C
Chariots
D
Thousand
Question 22
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.  In spring, the leaves are _______ green, whereas they appear _______ in autumn.

A
gleaming
B
luminous
C
dazzling
D
dull
Question 23
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.  It is the _______ route to reach Delhi.

A
lowest route
B
strongest route
C
quickest route
D
fastest route
Question 24
Comprehension

Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.  Harry's behaviour was very _______ during his school days.

A
Excited
B
Polite
C
Dull
D
Curious
Question 25
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.  Rectify.

A
Connect
B
Consider
C
Correct
D
Count
Question 26
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '÷' and '×' are interchanged? 16 ÷ 5 - 24 × 6 + 3 = ?

A
82
B
85
C
80
D
81
Question 27
Logical Reasoning

How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

A
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
Question 28
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '÷' and '×' are interchanged? 14 - 15 ÷ 2 + 56 × 14 = ?

A
40
B
35
C
45
D
30
Question 29
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?  CEG, FHJ, IKM, LNP, ?

A
OQS
B
QTV
C
QOR
D
QRS
Question 30
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?  RPM, USP, XVS, AYV, ?

A
BDY
B
DYB
C
DBY
D
BYD
Question 31
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'BACK' is coded as '4162' and 'CAB' is coded as '214'. What is the code for 'K' in that language?

A
2
B
1
C
4
D
6
Question 32
Logical Reasoning

Six letters A, R, T, W, Y, and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Which is the letter on the face opposite to the face containing A?

A
Y
B
W
C
Z
D
R
Question 33
Logical Reasoning

If 10 days before was a Sunday and 6 days after would be a Tuesday, then what day is it today?

A
Wednesday
B
Monday
C
Friday
D
Tuesday
Question 34
Logical Reasoning

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word WANDERLUST is arranged from left to right in alphabetical order?

A
Three
B
One
C
None
D
Two
Question 35
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, ‘time and again’ is coded as ‘zx df mo’ and ‘value your time’ is coded as ‘df pn tv’. How is ‘time’ coded in the given language?

A
df
B
mo
C
tv
D
zx
Question 36
Logical Reasoning

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '÷' and '×' are interchanged? 15 ÷ 4 - 128 + 123 × 3 = ?

A
147
B
187
C
167
D
127
Question 37
Logical Reasoning

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some sweaters are jackets. Some jackets are pullovers. No pullover is a glove. Conclusions: (I) No jacket is a glove. (II) Some sweaters are pullovers.

A
None of the conclusions follow
B
Only conclusion II follows
C
Only conclusion I follows
D
Both conclusions I and II follow
Question 38
Logical Reasoning

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. Referee : Field

A
Arbitrator : Deadlock
B
Judge : Courtroom
C
Experimenter : Result
D
Gladiator : Ring
Question 39
Logical Reasoning

33 is related to 726 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 43 is related to 946. To which of the following is 53 related, following the same logic?

A
846
B
980
C
1060
D
1166
Question 40
Logical Reasoning

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 12, 72)  (8, 16, 96)

A
(7, 28, 144)
B
(12, 24, 140)
C
(12, 24, 144)
D
(11, 24, 144)
Question 41
Logical Reasoning

'T + W' means 'T is the father of W' 'W + T' means 'T is the wife of W' 'T + W' means 'T is the brother of W' 'T + W' means 'T is the daughter of W' What does 'S + T + U' mean?

A
S is the husband of U
B
S is the uncle of U
C
S is the son of U
D
S is the brother of U
Question 42
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?  112, 113, 122, 147, 196, ?

A
282
B
294
C
277
D
253
Question 43
Logical Reasoning

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?  3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

A
125
B
126
C
127
D
128
Question 44
Logical Reasoning

Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

A
PRT
B
HJL
C
RTV
D
TVY
Question 45
Logical Reasoning

DFIK is related to EGJL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GILN is related to HJMO. To which of the following is MORT related to, following the same logic?

A
NQSU
B
NPSV
C
NPVS
D
NPSU
Question 46
Arithmetic

Find the number of paper balls, each 2 cm in diameter, that can be made from a sphere of diameter 18 cm.

A
1020
B
625
C
729
D
484
Question 47
Arithmetic

A shopkeeper sells an item at 20% discount on the marked price and earns a profit of 90%. If he sells the same item at 40% discount, then his new profit percentage will be:

A
48.2%
B
45.8%
C
41.8%
D
42.5%
Question 48
Arithmetic

Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the given question. The pie-chart represents the marks obtained by Sanya in different subjects in class 12. Total marks scored by her in class 12 was 450. If the total central angles corresponding to the pair of subjects (Physics and Hindi), (Chemistry and Physics) and (Hindi and Chemistry) were 156°, 144° and 140°, respectively, then find the total marks obtained by her in (English and Biology).

A
175
B
160
C
180
D
190
Question 49
Arithmetic

Study the given pie charts and answer the question that follows. If A = percentage of tourists who went to Agra, Amritsar, and Kashi, and B = percentage of tourists whose age lies between 2 years to 50 years, then what is A:B?

A
10:7
B
10:13
C
13:10
D
11:13
Question 50
Arithmetic

If 20% of 35% of a number is 240.8, then 18% of that number (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is:

A
619.2
B
618.2
C
621.2
D
623.2
Question 51
Arithmetic

The following bar graph represents the percentage marks obtained in grade 9, 10, 11, and 12 students in Economics, English, and History. If the full marks in Economics is 100, English is 80, and History is 50, then find the total marks obtained by grade 10 students.

A
190
B
220
C
200
D
245
Question 52
Arithmetic

A can finish a piece of work by working alone in 4 days. B, while working alone, can finish the same work in 12 days. If both of them work together, then in how many days will the work be completed?

A
8
B
6
C
3
D
4
Question 53
Arithmetic

Simplify the following expression: \(11\frac{1}{4}  \div 3\frac{3}{5} \times 6\frac{2}{3} +  1/6\)  = ___________.  

A
21
B
23
C
25
D
19
Question 54
Arithmetic

In a circle with center O, the diameter AB extended to the point C, outside the circle. CD is a tangent at the point D on the circle. If the radius of circle is 6 cm and ∠DBC = 120°, then the length of CD is equal to:

A
5√3 cm
B
3√3 cm
C
6√3 cm
D
4√3 cm
Question 55
Arithmetic

In a class with a certain number of students, if one student weighing 30 kg is added, then the average weight of the class increases by 1 kg. If one more student weighing 30 kg is added, then the average weight of the class increases by 1.5 kg over the original average. What is the original average weight (in kg) of the class?

A
27
B
26.5
C
25.5
D
24
Question 56
Arithmetic

What is the maximum value of 7 cosA + 24 sinA + 32°?

A
57
B
32
C
25
D
39
Question 57
Arithmetic

The given table shows the percentage of marks obtained by 5 students in different subjects. Study the table and answer the question that follows. (Maximum marks are given beside each subject.) The marks obtained by Ram in Botany are less/more than Karn’s marks in Botany by how much?

A
25 less
B
30 more
C
25 more
D
30 less
Question 58
Arithmetic

The speed of a thief is 4/5 times the speed of a policeman. The thief covers a distance of 6 km before he was caught by the policeman in 30 minutes. Initially, what was the distance between the policeman and the thief in km?

A
0.8
B
1.0
C
1.5
D
1.2
Question 59
Arithmetic

After decreasing 30%, an article costs Rs.3,500. Find its actual cost.

A
Rs.4,500
B
Rs.6,500
C
Rs.5,000
D
Rs.5,500
Question 60
Arithmetic

A metallic sphere of volume 3136π cm³ is melted and then recast into smaller cones, each of radius 3.5 cm and height 4 cm. How many cones are obtained?

A
148
B
192
C
196
D
172
Question 61
Arithmetic

In the diagram, if AB||CE, AG = GD = DH = HB, then which of the following is correct? \(I)\triangle ACG \simeq  \triangle BEH II) \triangle CDE \simeq  \triangle CEB \simeq  \triangle DCA III) \triangle HFB \simeq  \triangle AFG\)

A
I and III
B
I and II
C
I, II, and III
D
Only I
Question 62
Arithmetic

Simplify the following expression: [6 - 2{ \(3-4(4 \div  \frac{1}{4} -1) + 2 \div  \frac{1}{3}\) } - 3 × 2]

A
96
B
98
C
102
D
92
Question 63
Arithmetic

If three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm, then the area of the triangle is:

A
30 cm²
B
12√3 cm²
C
24 cm²
D
24√3 cm²
Question 64
Arithmetic

Study the given pie chart and answer the question that follows. If the total expenditure on education is Rs.23,520, then what is the expenditure on clothing (in ₹)?

A
10,080
B
10,300
C
12,300
D
11,000
Question 65
Arithmetic

By selling 22 items, Rohit gains the selling price of 6 items. His gain percent is:

A
37½%
B
37⅓%
C
33½%
D
33⅓%
Question 66
Arithmetic

The price of an electronic watch is first reduced by 25% and then increased by 50%. If the resulting price of the electronic watch is Rs.7,650, then what was its original price (in ₹)?

A
6,800
B
6,500
C
6,600
D
6,900
Question 67
Arithmetic

By decreasing 17° from each angle of a triangle, the ratio of their angles is 3:4:7. The radian measure of the greatest angle is:

A
153π/360
B
167π/180
C
163π/360
D
163π/180
Question 68
Arithmetic

The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 19 cm, 25 cm, and y cm. Which of the following options most accurately gives the possible values of ‘y’?

A
6 < y < 44
B
6 < y < 44
C
6 < y ≤ 44
D
6 ≤ y ≤ 44
Question 69
Arithmetic

The strength of a school is 640, with the number of boys being 400. Find the ratio of girls to boys.

A
8:5
B
5:6
C
3:5
D
4:5
Question 70
Arithmetic

What will be the amount due on ₹36,000 in 2 years when the rate of simple interest for successive years is 8% and 6%, respectively?

A
₹38,880
B
₹40,320
C
₹41,760
D
₹41,040
Question 71
GK

Intervention by the monetary authority of a country in the money market to keep money supply stable against exogenous or sometimes external shocks is called ________.

A
sterilisation
B
capitalisation
C
conservation
D
neutralisation
Question 72
GK

In PPT, What method can be used to move among slides if your hands are already on the keyboard?

A
Pressing the Esc key to exit the presentation
B
Using the keyboard directional keys
C
Scrolling with the mouse wheel
D
Clicking on the slide thumbnail in the Slides tab
Question 73
GK

What was the name of the person who has been elected as the Chair of the 62nd session of the United Nations Commission for Social Development?

A
Ruchira Kamboj
B
Satinder Kumar Lambah
C
BM Vinod Kumar
D
Nirupama Menon Rao
Question 74
GK

Which of the following is NOT an Olympics Sport? (As of March, 2023)

A
Cricket
B
Rowing
C
Sailing
D
3x3 Basketball
Question 75
GK

According to Census 2011, India's population accounts ________ of the world's population.

A
20%
B
15%
C
10%
D
17.5%
Question 76
GK

Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh states are rich with ________ material deposits.

A
gold
B
silicon
C
petroleum
D
coal
Question 77
GK

Fundamental duties were introduced in Part IVA of the Constitution by the:

A
Forty-third Amendment Act, 1977
B
Forty-first Amendment Act, 1976
C
Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
D
Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
Question 78
GK

How does the CPU distinguish between each memory cell?

A
By its address
B
By its data item
C
By its capacity
D
By its byte size
Question 79
GK

The Big Dipper is an asterism formed by the seven brightest stars in the constellation:

A
Ursa Major
B
Orion
C
Cassiopeia
D
Leo Major
Question 80
GK

Aajeveeka - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) - was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India, in the year ________.

A
2013
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011
Question 81
GK

Baiga is a folk music of Baiga Tribe from which of the following states?

A
Uttarakhand
B
Assam
C
Bihar
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 82
GK

The cell wall of bacteria is made up of:

A
peptidoglycan
B
cellulose
C
glycogen
D
peptone
Question 83
GK

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are related to Fundamental Rights?

A
12-35
B
32-51
C
14-32
D
12-36
Question 84
GK

According to rules laid down by the International Football Association Board (IFAB), what can be the maximum length of a goal line in football?

A
90 m
B
100 m
C
40 m
D
50 m
Question 85
GK

What kind of a satellite is CMS-01, that was launched by ISRO in December 2020?

A
Navigation
B
Resource management
C
Tsunami observation
D
Communication
Question 86
GK

Shattantari Veena, meaning a Veena with hundred strings, is the ancient Sanskrit name of which instrument?

A
Tambura/Tanpura
B
Sarangi
C
Sarod
D
Santoor
Question 87
GK

Which party won the Jalandhar (a city in Punjab) Lok Sabha bypoll election held in May 2023?

A
Indian National Congress
B
Akali Dal
C
Aam Aadmi Party
D
Bharatiya Janata Party
Question 88
GK

Which of the following date is observed as a national festival?

A
24 October
B
25 October
C
2 October
D
10 October
Question 89
GK

Milk of magnesia is a suspension of __________ in water.

A
magnesium oxalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
magnesium chlorate
D
magnesium bromide
Question 90
GK

Warren Hastings became the Governor-General of Bengal from Governor of Bengal after the passing of which of the following Acts?

A
Indian Council Act of 1861
B
Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C
Regulating Act, 1773
D
Charter Act, 1813
Question 91
GK

In a test match, the captain of the fielding side may demand a new ball after ________.

A
80 overs
B
85 overs
C
70 overs
D
75 overs
Question 92
GK

Rouf is the traditional dance of ________, which is practiced on the festive occasions of Eid and during Ramzan days.

A
Jammu & Kashmir
B
Chandigarh
C
Leh
D
Puducherry
Question 93
GK

In 1955, ____ noted the possibility of using small-scale industries for promoting rural development.

A
Chakravarty Committee
B
Sarkaria Committee
C
Kelkar Committee
D
Karve Committee
Question 94
GK

The Union Cabinet, in Aug 2022, approved the enhancement in the limit of Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) by ________, with the additional amount being earmarked exclusively for enterprises in hospitality and related sectors.

A
₹10,000 crore
B
₹50,000 crore
C
₹60,000 crore
D
₹30,000 crore
Question 95
GK

Who amongst the following Mughal emperors got classical Hindu mythological texts Ramayana and Mahabharata translated into Persian?

A
Jahangir
B
Aurangzeb
C
Akbar
D
Shahjahan