SSC-GD 2024 Questions

21 Feb 2024 • Shift 2

75 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary: 1. Line 2. Linament 3. Linger 4. Linear 5. Linguist

A
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B
1, 3, 4, 5, 1
C
2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D
2, 1, 4, 3, 5
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Five persons A, B, C, D, and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center (not necessarily in the same order). Only one person is sitting between C and D (when counted from one side only). B is sitting immediate to the left of D. A is sitting to the immediate right of E. Who is sitting on the immediate left of E?

A
A
B
D
C
C
D
B
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, if DEFINITE is coded as 'FITEDENI' and 'BUFFALOW' is coded as 'FFOWBUAL', then what will ATTACHED be coded as?

A
TAEDATHC
B
TAEADITCH
C
TAEDATCH
D
TEADATCH
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

'Q × R' means 'Q is the wife of R', 'Q ÷ R' means 'Q is the husband of R', 'Q + R' means 'Q is the daughter of R', 'Q - R' means 'Q is the mother of R'. How is W related to G in the expression 'W + E ÷ F - G'?

A
Wife
B
Daughter
C
Sister
D
Mother
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, some statements are followed by conclusions. Decide which conclusion logically follows: Statements: I. All R are V. II. All V are Y. Conclusions: I. All V are R II. All Y are R

A
Neither conclusion follows.
B
Only conclusion I follows.
C
Only conclusion II follows.
D
Both conclusions I and II follow.
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following groups of letters, when sequentially placed from left to right, will complete the given series? _bcdeefb bccdeef_bbccdee_f

A
fefe
B
eeff
C
befe
D
bfef
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

Select the option that is related to the fifth word in the same way as the fourth word is related to the third word, and the second word is related to the first word: BANGALORE : CITY OF GARDEN :: SRINAGAR : CITY OF LAKES :: KOLKATA : ?

A
CITY OF JOY
B
CITY OF FLOWERS
C
CITY OF TEMPLES
D
CITY OF MOUNTAINS
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series: 22, 12, 13, 20.5, 42, ?

A
106
B
110
C
118
D
111
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'TIME' is coded as '43', 'WHEN' is coded as '46'. What is the code for 'TURN' in that code language?

A
67
B
64
C
73
D
69
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

If 16 A 13 B 6 C 9 = 85 and 15 A 20 B 7 C 30 = 125, then 10 A 15 B 6 C 20 = ?

A
98
B
90
C
80
D
95
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are eight children sitting facing each other around a circular table (it is not necessary that they are sitting in that order). A and H are sitting opposite each other. E and F are sitting next to B. C is sitting fourth to the left of B. G is sitting to the immediate left of A. D is sitting next to C. Who is sitting to the immediate right of D?

A
C
B
G
C
D
D
B
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following letters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? ?, Y, V, S, P, M

A
Z
B
C
C
A
D
B
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series: 41, 63, 85, 107, 129, ?

A
154
B
170
C
151
D
150
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

By interchanging the given two numbers, which of the following equations will be incorrect? 3 and 8

A
9 + 8 - 3 × 1 = 4
B
8 + 4 × 3 - 6 = 29
C
8 × 2 - 3 ÷ 1 = -2
D
3 - 8 + 6 = 12
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives: FXYI : EWXH :: GLNB : ?

A
XAQD
B
DMLU
C
FKMA
D
XAPD
Question 16
GK

Which country hosted the FIFA World Cup 2022?

A
Saudi Arabia
B
Qatar
C
Germany
D
Brazil
Question 17
GK

Captain Pratima Bhullar Maldonado, an Indian-origin police officer, has become the highest-ranking South Asian woman in the ______ Police Department in May, 2023.

A
New York
B
Ottawa
C
Vancouver
D
Paris
Question 18
GK

During what circumstances can some Fundamental Rights be suspended, as per the Indian Constitution?

A
During peacetime
B
Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended under any circumstances
C
During external emergencies, such as war or external aggression
D
During any emergency, whether national or local
Question 19
GK

Which dance style is associated with the story of Lord Krishna and his queen Satyabhama's 'Bhama Kalapam'?

A
Kathak
B
Bharatnatyam
C
Kuchipudi
D
Odissi
Question 20
GK

______ is a cricket shot where the batsman swings the bat vertically and hits the ball along the ground. The ball is hit between cover and mid-off.

A
Off Drive
B
Front Foot Defense
C
Straight Drive
D
On Drive
Question 21
GK

Which of the following war/battle is associated with the hanging of Mangal Pandey?

A
Indian Rebellion of 1857
B
Second Anglo-Maratha War
C
Battle of Plassey
D
First Anglo-Burmese War
Question 22
GK

Bohag Bihu is also known as ______.

A
Kongali Bihu
B
Rangali Bihu
C
Kati Bihu
D
Magh Bihu
Question 23
GK

The Second Five-Year Plan stressed rapid industrialization and the public sector. It was drafted and planned under the leadership of ______.

A
P.C. Mahalanobis
B
C. Rajagopalachari
C
Subramanian Swamy
D
K.V. Sundaram
Question 24
GK

Which state government has passed a law providing 30 per cent horizontal reservation for resident women in the state in government jobs, in January 2023?

A
Bihar
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
Question 25
GK

Which of the following sports is played by Ankita Raina?

A
Badminton
B
Lawn Tennis
C
Cricket
D
Football
Question 26
GK

Which country won the FIFA World Cup 2022?

A
Argentina
B
France
C
Croatia
D
Germany
Question 27
GK

According to the World Bank, by what rate has extreme poverty reduced in India between 2011 and 2019?

A
14.3%
B
15.3%
C
12.3%
D
13.3%
Question 28
GK

The capital of the Mauryan empire was ______.

A
Ujjayini
B
Taxila
C
Suvarnagiri
D
Pataliputra
Question 29
GK

As on July 2023, Deepika Deswal is the youngest Indian to deliver a speech at the ______ for the third time.

A
World Bank
B
United Nations
C
Shanghai Cooperation Organization
D
BRICS
Question 30
GK

Who of the following was awarded by the Sangeet Natak Akademi for contribution to Bharatanatyam dance style?

A
Radha Sridhar
B
Suruba Sen
C
Akham Lakshmi Devi
D
Maulik Shah
Question 31
GK

What is the chemical formula for barium hydroxide?

A
Ba(OH) 3
B
Ba(OH) 2
C
BaOH
D
Ba 2 OH
Question 32
GK

Which of the following is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha?

A
450
B
350
C
150
D
250
Question 33
GK

The "Make in India" initiative was launched on September 25, ______.

A
2014
B
2016
C
2011
D
2015
Question 34
GK

The Ranjit Singh Gold Cup is associated with which of the following sports?

A
Cricket
B
Kabaddi
C
Hockey
D
Polo
Question 35
GK

The first and foremost role of ______ is that it acts as a medium of exchange.

A
Planning
B
Product
C
Money
D
Budget
Question 36
Arithmetic

What is the value of 42 + 43 − 6 ÷ 4 × (45 ÷ (7 − 2))?

A
−111
B
−121
C
−141
D
71.5
Question 37
Arithmetic

What is the value of 4400 − (3200 + 16) + 32 × 4?

A
4164
B
1312
C
3924
D
4068
Question 38
Arithmetic

On selling a book at 1/2 of the marked price, there is a loss of 50%. What will be the ratio of marked price to cost price of the book?

A
2 : 5
B
6 : 5
C
5 : 6
D
3 : 8
Question 39
Arithmetic

The length of the side of a cube is 14 cm. What is the lateral surface area of the cube?

A
856 cm 2
B
624 cm 2
C
784 cm 2
D
512 cm 2
Question 40
Arithmetic

John deposited $1000 in a bank account that offers a simple interest rate of 5% per annum. How much interest will be earned after 2 years?

A
$115
B
$100
C
$110
D
$120
Question 41
Arithmetic

A table when sold for ₹11,480 gives a loss of 15%. Calculate the loss or gain percentage when the same table is sold for ₹13,540.

A
12% loss
B
11% profit
C
12% profit
D
10% loss
Question 42
Arithmetic

Determine the fourth proportion to 30, 120, and 15.

A
90
B
60
C
100
D
120
Question 43
Arithmetic

If 4/5 of A is equal to 2/5 of B, then find the value of A : B.

A
1 : 2
B
2 : 1
C
2 : 3
D
3 : 4
Question 44
Arithmetic

If U gets 5% more marks than V, then by what percentage are the marks of V less than the marks of U?

A
4.7%
B
5.7%
C
3.7%
D
2.7%
Question 45
Arithmetic

What is the value of 420 + 64 ÷ 8 − 3 × 2?

A
416
B
422
C
424
D
420
Question 46
Arithmetic

Marked price and selling price of an article are ₹6600 and ₹4752, respectively. What is the discount percentage?

A
34%
B
32%
C
25%
D
28%
Question 47
Arithmetic

A and B can do a piece of work in 14 2/3 days while B and C can do the same work in 12 1/2 days, and C and A in 16 2/3 days. By working together, what part of the same work can all three finish in 2 days?

A
275/336
B
225/336
C
127/336
D
277/336
Question 48
Arithmetic

From point P, X walks at a speed of 12 km/h and 6 hours after his start, Y starts walking from the same point P on his cycle at a speed of 16 km/h. How far from the starting point P will Y catch X?

A
224 km
B
288 km
C
256 km
D
324 km
Question 49
Arithmetic

There are two numbers such that the first number is half of the second number. If their average is 15, then what is the first number?

A
12
B
14
C
10
D
8
Question 50
Arithmetic

A is firstly increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 30%. Final value of A is what percentage of initial value of A?

A
74%
B
156%
C
94%
D
84%
Question 51
Arithmetic

A can do a piece of work in 7 hours, B can do it in 21/4 hours, and C and A can do it in 7 1/2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?

A
24 hours
B
21 hours
C
20 hours
D
22 hours
Question 52
Arithmetic

Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 11?

A
2728
B
2763
C
2651
D
2563
Question 53
Arithmetic

If the cost price of 5 shirts is the same as the selling price of 3 shirts, find the profit percentage.

A
55.33%
B
63.33%
C
33.66%
D
66.66%
Question 54
Arithmetic

The average of 4 numbers is 32. The average of the first 2 numbers is double the average of the last 2 numbers. What is the sum of the last 2 numbers?

A
48
B
72
C
56
D
32
Question 55
Arithmetic

The compound interest (compounding half-yearly) received on ₹22,000 for 2 years is ₹10,120.2. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A
20%
B
40%
C
25%
D
30%
Question 56
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for the given blank: The team ______ children on proper safety procedures.

A
educate
B
educated
C
education
D
educating
Question 57
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’: Each and every one of them want to discuss the post-production amount.

A
No error
B
Each and every one of
C
them want to discuss
D
the post-production amount
Question 58
Comprehension

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’: You could see / they were being careful as hell / not to drink up the minimum fastest.

A
not to drink up the minimum fastest
B
You could see
C
they were being careful as hell
D
No error
Question 59
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct: He had chop the onions on the cutting board.

A
No improvement
B
chopping
C
chopped
D
chop
Question 60
Comprehension

Select the sentence with no spelling errors:

A
When placed on the column, each ring slid down to its corect position, if possible.
B
When placed on the column, each ring slid down to its corret position, if possible.
C
When placed on the column, each ring slid down to its correct position, if possible.
D
When placed on the column, each ring slid down to its correect position, if possible.
Question 61
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for the given blank: I don’t know why he ______ suicide despite being born into such a wonderful family.

A
obligated
B
executed
C
pledged
D
committed
Question 62
Comprehension

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’: In the afternoon we walk in the Parks; / and I wondered who shod all the horses there, / and wished Joe did.

A
and wished Joe did.
B
In the afternoon we walk in the Parks;
C
No error
D
and I wondered who shod all the horses there,
Question 63
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct: The cakes was for her birthday.

A
cakes is for
B
cake is for
C
No improvement
D
cake are for
Question 64
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct: I want to loose weight , yet I eat chocolate daily.

A
No improvement
B
lose weight
C
lose weighted
D
lost weights
Question 65
Comprehension

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word: Advantages

A
Adjourns
B
Refuges
C
Boons
D
Minuses
Question 66
Comprehension

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word: For twenty years you held an innocent and virtuous woman under an infamous suspicion.

A
Blameless
B
Moral
C
Righteous
D
Unethical
Question 67
Comprehension

Select the incorrectly spelt word from the given sentence: And with modern technology, it would be possible to distribute lesure justly without injury to civilization.

A
Lesure
B
Distribute
C
Possible
D
Technology
Question 68
Comprehension

Select the incorrectly spelt word from the given sentence: Retail outlets are closing down, so the customers are left with no other choise but to make online purchases.

A
Purchase
B
Retail
C
Choise
D
Customers
Question 69
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom: Shot in the arm

A
Something that lifts your spirit
B
To hit someone
C
To take a chance
D
To reveal what you really think
Question 70
Comprehension

Choose the idiom/phrase that can substitute the highlighted group of words meaningfully: I feel they are watching me too closely and making me feel uncomfortable in the new college.

A
Breathing down one’s neck
B
Break a leg
C
In the dark
D
Run out of steam
Question 71
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (1): Several lines of geological evidence ______ that an asteroid that was as much as 10 kilometers (6 miles) in diameter hit the Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period.

A
prevaricate
B
sign
C
animate
D
indicate
Question 72
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (2): This evidence includes an ancient impact crater in the Yucatan Peninsula of Mexico that dates to the same ______ as the extinction.

A
space
B
spell
C
span
D
period
Question 73
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (3): The impact would have produced an enormous dust cloud that would have risen ______ into the atmosphere.

A
for
B
in
C
to
D
of
Question 74
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (4): This dust cloud would have ______ up into the atmosphere and blocked sunlight for several years.

A
raised up
B
rise in
C
risen up
D
raised in
Question 75
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (5): This impact would have encircled the Earth with debris, creating an environment hostile to most forms of life.

A
walled
B
encircled
C
fenced
D
captured