SSC-GD 2024 Questions

22 Feb 2024 • Shift 2

77 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

Six colleagues Peter, Quin, Rachel, Sam, Tina, and Ulysses are sitting in a circle facing away from the center. Peter is sitting to the immediate right of Quin. Tina is not sitting next to Peter. Sam, who is sitting to the immediate left of Quin, is also sitting to the immediate right of Ulysses. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Tina?

A
Quinn
B
Ulysses
C
Rachel
D
Peter
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Debate 2. Debark 3. Debar 4. Debauch 5. Debenture

A
1,2,3,5,4
B
3,2,1,5,4
C
1,2,3,4,5
D
3,2,1,4,5
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

'M × N' means 'M is the mother of N' 'M + N' means 'M is the father of N' 'M ÷ N' means 'M is the sister of N' 'M - N' means 'M is the brother of N' How is X related to Y in the expression 'X ÷ Z - A × Y'?

A
Mother's sister
B
Sister
C
Husband's sister
D
Father's sister
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'TEACH' is coded as '74', 'STUDY' is coded as '178'. What is the code for 'NEVER' in that code language?

A
128
B
124
C
118
D
132
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

Three Statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statement I: All bicycles are wheels. Statement II: Some bicycles are vehicles. Statement III: Some vehicles are not tyres.  Conclusion I: Some bicycles are tyres. Conclusion II: Some wheels are not vehicles.

A
Both conclusions I and II follow
B
Neither conclusion I nor II follows
C
Only conclusion I follows
D
Only conclusion II follows
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'LEAVE' is coded as '42', 'TEAM' is coded as '36'. What is the code for 'OFFER' in that code language?

A
46
B
48
C
47
D
50
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 62 + 12 - 42 ÷ 7 × 44 = 90

A
× and ÷
B
× and -
C
× and +
D
+ and ÷
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 118, 113, 108, 103, 98, 93, ?

A
75
B
88
C
59
D
62
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? DS, EN, GJ, JG, NE, ?

A
SC
B
RD
C
RE
D
SD
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 10, 28, 46, 64, ?, 100

A
85
B
80
C
90
D
82
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Find the number opposite of 8.

A
9
B
6
C
7
D
5
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

If 17 M 18 N 55 O 5 = 46 and 68 M 13 N 65 O 13 = 86, then 40 M 70 N 85 O 17 = ?

A
135
B
145
C
115
D
150
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter cluster in the same way as the fourth letter cluster is related to the third letter cluster and the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster. CAUSAL: ACUSLA :: DEBATE: EDBAET :: EFFORT: ?

A
FEOFTR
B
TROFFE
C
FEFOTR
D
FFETRO
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following groups of letters when sequentially placed from left to right will complete the given series? gghhiijjggh_iijjgghh__jjgghhiijjgghhiijjgg_hiijj

A
ghij
B
hihi
C
gghh
D
hiih
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

Five friends Priya, Rahul, Suresh, Tina, and Varun are sitting on a circular table facing the center. Varun, who is sitting to the immediate left of Rahul, is also second to the right of Tina. Suresh is not sitting next to Varun. Who is sitting second to the left of Rahul?

A
Priya
B
Tina
C
Suresh
D
Varun
Question 16
Logical Reasoning

Select the option that is related to the fifth number-letter cluster in the same way as the fourth number-letter cluster is related to the third number-letter cluster, and the second number-letter cluster is related to the first number-letter cluster. ELECTRON : TRONCELE :: FUNCTION : TIONCNUF :: CLUSTERS : ?

A
TERSSUCL
B
TERSSULC
C
TRESSULC
D
TERSUSLC
Question 17
Logical Reasoning

Three different positions of the same dice are given below. Find the number opposite of 1.

A
4
B
6
C
3
D
2
Question 18
GK

Unemployment that occurs during recessions and depressions are called as _______.

A
Disguised unemployment
B
Frictional unemployment
C
Seasonal unemployment
D
Cyclical unemployment
Question 19
GK

________ in Indian Dance is given in recognition of excellence and achievement in performance or research studies in Indian Dance.

A
The Manorama Thakkar Award
B
The Uday Shankar Award
C
The Rukmini Devi Award
D
The Nritya Choodamani Award
Question 20
GK

Which article of the Indian Constitution comprises the fundamental duties?

A
51-A
B
52-A
C
53-A
D
54-A
Question 21
GK

Which of the following clubs is playing in the i-League 2023/24? I. Punjab FC II. Mohammedan Sporting Club

A
Neither I nor II
B
Only I
C
Only II
D
Both I and II
Question 22
GK

Which two teams played in the finals of the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy in November 2023?

A
Punjab and Assam
B
Punjab and Baroda
C
Assam and Baroda
D
Baroda and Delhi
Question 23
GK

In which of the following states of India is Nongkrem festival celebrated?

A
Rajasthan
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Meghalaya
Question 24
GK

Tipu Sultan became the ruler of Mysore in ________.

A
1798
B
1782
C
1792
D
1786
Question 25
GK

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, aimed at replacing the Criminal Procedure Code was introduced by ________.

A
President Draupadi Murmu
B
Home Minister Amit Shah
C
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
D
Foreign Minister S. Jayashankar
Question 26
GK

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the five-year plan in India? I. India had emerged as one of the fastest-growing economies by the end of the Tenth Five-Year Plan. II. Tenth Five-Year Plan had set 'monitorable targets' for a few key indicators of development.

A
Neither I nor II
B
Both I and II
C
Only II
D
Only I
Question 27
GK

Who was recently appointed as a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2023?

A
Shaktikanta Das
B
Swaminathan Janakiraman
C
T. Ravi Sankar
D
Mahesh Kumar Jain
Question 28
GK

Which dance form originated in Andhra Pradesh?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Sattriya
Question 29
GK

Which of the following is correct regarding the Green Revolution in India? I. During the Green Revolution, shifting from traditional farming to monoculture had negative effects on small farmers. II. One of the impacts of the Green Revolution is over-capitalization in agriculture.

A
Only II
B
Both I and II
C
Neither I nor II
D
Only I
Question 30
GK

In any tennis game, any game starts at 0-0 and the zero point in tennis is called ________.

A
Start
B
Love
C
Origin
D
Base
Question 31
GK

Match the following personalities with their associated musical instrument: A) S. Balachander B) Anushka Shankar C) Kishan Maharaj 1 Tabla 2 Veena 3 Sitar

A
A-1, B-3, C-2
B
A-2, B-1, C-3
C
A-1, B-2, C-3
D
A-2, B-3, C-1
Question 32
GK

What is the basic unit of time?

A
Second (s)
B
Minute/second (m/s)
C
Minute(min.)
D
Hour(hr.)
Question 33
GK

Which state cabinet has approved the 'Abua Awas Yojna', a housing scheme in October 2023?

A
Bihar
B
Rajasthan
C
Jharkhand
D
Assam
Question 34
GK

How many members of the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly and are representatives of States and Union Territories?

A
237
B
239
C
236
D
238
Question 35
GK

Read the following statements about Money. A. Money also acts as a convenient unit of account. B. The value of all goods and services can be expressed in monetary units. Identify the CORRECT statement/statements.

A
Both A and B
B
Neither A nor B
C
Only A
D
Only B
Question 36
GK

Who was the founder of the Mauryan empire?

A
Mahapadma Nanda
B
Bindusara
C
Ashoka
D
Chandragupta Maurya
Question 37
GK

The adult literacy rate (15+) for male is ____ against 59.3 of females in 2011

A
90
B
58.8
C
70.8
D
78.8
Question 38
Arithmetic

A person bought some pens at the rate of 20 for a rupee and sold them at the rate of 15 for a rupee. What is the profit percentage?

A
35 percent
B
15 percent
C
33.33 percent
D
40 percent
Question 39
Arithmetic

After giving 10 percent discount on an article there is still a profit of 10 percent. What will be the profit percentage when no discount is given?

A
35 percent
B
33.33 percent
C
22.22 percent
D
66.67 percent
Question 40
Arithmetic

Manish alone can complete a work in 48 days and Pratap alone can complete the same work in half of the time taken by Manish. In how many days will both together complete 1/4 part of the total work?

A
5 days
B
4.5 days
C
6 days
D
4 days
Question 41
Arithmetic

The average of marks obtained by S1 and S2 is 35 more than the average of marks obtained by S2 and S3. If the marks obtained by S3 is 75, then what are the marks obtained by S1?

A
170
B
165
C
155
D
145
Question 42
Arithmetic

On a sum, simple interest at the annual rate of 10 percent for 8 years is Rs. 8000. What will be the compound interest on the same sum at the annual rate of 10 percent (compounding annually) for 3 years?

A
Rs. 3450
B
Rs. 3750
C
Rs. 3220
D
Rs. 3310
Question 43
Arithmetic

The average age of 14 students of a class is 17 years. If a new student of age 32 years joins the class, then what will be the average age of these 15 students?

A
21 years
B
22 years
C
19 years
D
18 years
Question 44
Arithmetic

Simple interest on a sum for 5 years is equal to 20 percent of the principal. In how many years interest will be equal to the principal?

A
30 years
B
40 years
C
25 years
D
35 years
Question 45
Arithmetic

A person bought an article and sold it at a loss of 20 percent. If he had bought it for 30 percent less price and sold it for Rs.125 more, then he would earn a profit of 50 percent. What is the cost price of the article

A
Rs. 450
B
Rs. 620
C
Rs. 500
D
Rs. 600
Question 46
Arithmetic

In a class, 40 percent are boys and the number of girls are 54. What is the number of boys in the class?

A
36
B
34
C
33
D
37
Question 47
Arithmetic

X, Y and Z are three students. X got 40 percent more marks than Y and 20 percent less marks than Z. If Y got 480 marks, then what are the marks got by Z?

A
840
B
850
C
820
D
800
Question 48
Arithmetic

How many spherical balls of radius 8 cm can be made by melting a hemisphere of radius 48 cm?

A
90
B
116
C
104
D
108
Question 49
Arithmetic

The sum of the three numbers is 123. If the ratio between the first and second is 3: 4 and that between the second and third is 3: 5, then find the second number.

A
46
B
42
C
33
D
36
Question 50
Arithmetic

What is the value of 42 × 3 + 25 × 3 − 14 ÷ 7 × 5?

A
187
B
191
C
186
D
182
Question 51
Arithmetic

What is the Highest Common Factor of 12, 8 and 24?

A
12
B
8
C
4
D
6
Question 52
Arithmetic

For what value of M, 58524M is divisible by 9?

A
8
B
2
C
3
D
7
Question 53
Arithmetic

The least number which is exactly divisible by 27, 36, 56, 12 and 10?

A
7560
B
8584
C
5953
D
7694
Question 54
Arithmetic

The ratio of three numbers is 6: 8: 9. If the sum of the three numbers is 460, then what is the largest number among the three numbers?

A
160
B
120
C
100
D
180
Question 55
Arithmetic

A boat travels a distance of 54 km at uniform speed. If the speed of boat is increased by 3 km/hr, then it takes 3 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the boat?

A
3 km/hr
B
12 km/hr
C
9 km/hr
D
6 km/hr
Question 56
Arithmetic

Marked price and selling price of an article are Rs. 7600 and Rs. 6688 respectively. What is the discount percentage?

A
8 percent
B
16 percent
C
10 percent
D
12 percent
Question 57
Arithmetic

Rakesh, Mahesh and Puneesh together can make a chair in 20 minutes. Rakesh and Mahesh together can make it in 25 minutes. How much time will Puneesh alone take to make that chair?

A
95 minutes
B
80 minutes
C
100 minutes
D
110 minutes
Question 58
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. The most significant near-term impacts on renewable plants that are already contracted or under construction may being felt through supply chains.

A
renewable plants that are already contracted or under
B
The most significant near-term impacts on
C
No error
D
construction may being felt through supply chains
Question 59
Comprehension

Select the incorrectly spelt word from the given sentence. The primary goal of verbal comunication is to use language to convey information clearly and concisely.

A
comunication
B
concisely
C
convey
D
language
Question 60
Comprehension

The sentence has been divided into three parts. Identify the error segment in the sentence given below. Choose no error if there is no error in the sentence. "Her latest novel is considered one of the most captivating story in contemporary literature, earning praise for its intricate plot and well-developed characters."

A
Her latest novel is considered one of the most captivating story
B
For its intricate plot and well-developed characters
C
No error
D
In contemporary literature, earning praise
Question 61
Comprehension

Select the sentence with no spelling errors.

A
IIT-Roorkee has stated three main findengs in its report.
B
IIT-Roorkee has stated three main findings in its report.
C
IIT-Roorkee has statid three main findings in its report.
D
IIT-Roorkee has stated three mane findings in its report.
Question 62
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. Phrase : To make merry

A
To find loopholes
B
To get married
C
To enjoy oneself
D
To make excuses
Question 63
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. Sentence : Find out who is the real actor.

A
Real actors
B
Real acting
C
Really actor
D
No improvement
Question 64
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. Sentence : This is only a partial list of the books ______ are needed in the library.

A
that's
B
that
C
which
D
their
Question 65
Comprehension

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word. Word : Strong

A
Quick
B
Lazy
C
Boring
D
Delicate
Question 66
Comprehension

Choose the idiom/phrase that can substitute the highlighted group of words meaningfully. Phrase : It’s no use worrying about the past mishaps.

A
Spill the beans
B
Crying over spilt milk
C
Off on the wrong foot
D
Back to the grind
Question 67
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. Phrase : To hit or miss the mark

A
To succeed or fail in an attempt
B
To speak a truth and lie at the same time
C
To retain one’s position no matter what
D
To miss someone
Question 68
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose "No error." Sentence : The muscles on his chest and arms was not well defined.

A
No error
B
The muscles on his chest and arms
C
his chest and arms
D
was not well defined
Question 69
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Word : Capital

A
Regular
B
Fundamental
C
Principle
D
Extra
Question 70
Comprehension

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. We cannot always follow instructions exactly, sometimes we need to incorporate our own ideas.

A
Exclude
B
Integrate
C
Part
D
Separate
Question 71
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for the given blank. Can you ____ me a favour this last time?

A
do
B
lend
C
make
D
have
Question 72
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose 'No improvement' as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. The effect of the changes was unexpected.

A
has unexpected
B
was unexpect
C
were unexpected
D
No improvement
Question 73
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

A
seldom
B
usually
C
frequently
D
often
Question 74
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

A
remote
B
foreign
C
strange
D
exclusive
Question 75
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

A
however
B
perhaps
C
because
D
as
Question 76
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

A
electrician
B
doctor
C
plumber
D
house-maid
Question 77
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

A
oneself
B
ourselves
C
themselves
D
herself