SSC-GD 2024 Questions

23 Feb 2024 • Shift 1

76 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation will be correct? × and + I. 5 + 6 × 2 - 4 - 1 = 10 II. 9 × 3 - 4 + 2 + 5 = 4

A
Only II
B
Both I and II
C
Only I
D
Neither I nor II
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Eight persons Reena, Kiran, Rahul, Deepak, Amit, Vikas, Preeti and Priya sit around a square table such that two persons sit in each of the sides. All the persons are sitting facing the centre of the table. Reena sits on the immediate right of Amit and they both sit on the same side. Preeti faces the one who is second to the left of Kiran. Preeti is sitting fourth to the right of Reena. Two persons sit between Vikas and Deepak (when counted from one side only) and Deepak is adjacent to Amit. Only one person sits between Preeti and Rahul (when counted from one side only). Who is sitting to the immediate left of Deepak?

A
Vikas
B
Priya
C
Rahul
D
Kiran
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Find the letter opposite of M.

A
R
B
Q
C
T
D
P
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'LAST' is coded as 'PFWY'. What is the code for 'MEAN' in that code language?

A
QKES
B
QJFT
C
QJES
D
QKFS
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

Six persons P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 and P6 are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only two persons are sitting between P2 and P6 from the either sides. Only one person is sitting between P2 and P4. P5 is sitting to the immediate right of P3. P1 is sitting second to the right of P6. Who is sitting on the immediate right of P1?

A
P6
B
P5
C
P4
D
P2
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 451, 472, 493, 514, ?, 556

A
538
B
535
C
534
D
530
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following groups of letters when sequentially placed from left to right will complete the given series? ee_fgghheeffgg_heeffgghheeff__jh

A
ggfh
B
eeff
C
fhgg
D
efgh
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. 64, 72, 45, 109, -16, ?

A
205
B
200
C
208
D
180
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. MQRT, JNOQ, GKLN, DHIK, ?

A
ANRS
B
AMRQ
C
AEFH
D
ANTS
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

Three Statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.                                                                     Statement I: All cats are mammals.  Statement II: All mammals are animals.  Statement III: All animals are living beings.  Conclusion I: Some cats are living beings.  Conclusion II: All living beings are cats.

A
Only conclusion II follows
B
Both  conclusion I and II follows
C
Only conclusion I follows
D
Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

If 67 L 50 M 15 N 6 = 27 and 100 L 50 M 13 N 5 = 85, then 6 L 8 M 4 N 3 = ?

A
8
B
5
C
7
D
2
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 1. Change 2. Chance 3. Channel 4. Chant 5. Chancellor

A
2, 5, 1, 4, 3
B
2, 3, 1, 4, 5
C
2, 3, 1, 5, 4
D
2, 5, 1, 3, 4
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

If 'R × S' means 'R is the sister of S'. If 'R + S' means 'R is the brother of S'. If 'R + S' means 'R is the daughter of S'. If 'R - S' means 'R is the husband of S'. How is H related to J in the expression 'H - F × I + J?

A
Sister's husband
B
Son
C
Daughter's husband
D
Father
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. BO : AM :: CP : ?

A
AS
B
YX
C
HI
D
BN
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives. ER: ET :: ?

A
EZ: AV
B
OG: KC
C
SX: SZ
D
WK: GR
Question 16
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'PAGES' is coded as '192', 'ABOVE' is coded as '180'. What is the code for 'PRIOR' in that code language?

A
304
B
296
C
308
D
312
Question 17
GK

Saikhom Mirabai Chanu is an _______

A
Indian Boxer
B
Indian Wrestler
C
Indian weightlifter
D
Indian cyclist
Question 18
GK

What are the two main forms of protection used to shield domestic industries from foreign competition in an inward-looking trade strategy?

A
Tariffs and subsidies
B
Quotas and subsidies
C
Tariffs and price controls
D
Tariffs and quotas
Question 19
GK

India has an open border with which of the following countries?

A
China
B
Pakistan
C
Myanmar
D
Nepal
Question 20
GK

In India the financial/fiscal year is taken from _______.

A
1st October to 30th September
B
1st April to 31st March
C
1st Jan to 31st December
D
1st July to 30th June
Question 21
GK

Which album earned Ricky Kej his third Grammy Award?

A
Harmony of Elements
B
Divine Tides
C
Melodies of the Universe
D
Nature's Symphony
Question 22
GK

In which type of shooting sport do athletes shoot at targets from a distance of 10 meters, 25 meters, and 50 meters?

A
Archery
B
Rifle shooting
C
Skeet shooting
D
Biathlon
Question 23
GK

In which state, Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is established?

A
Kerala
B
Bihar
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 24
GK

The oldest Veda is the Rigveda, composed about ____ years ago.

A
2500
B
5000
C
3500
D
2000
Question 25
GK

Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with 'Right to Freedom of Religion'?

A
Article 60-65
B
Article 21-24
C
Article 25-28
D
Article 30-35
Question 26
GK

____ dance form originates from the southern Indian state of Kerala.

A
Only Mohiniyattam
B
Kathakali and Mohiniyattam
C
Only Kuchipudi
D
Only Kathak
Question 27
GK

Who hosted the 2011 ODI cricket world cup?

A
Australia
B
India only
C
India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
D
Sri Lanka, Bangladesh only
Question 28
GK

In which year did Cripps Mission arrive in India?

A
1932
B
1922
C
1952
D
1942
Question 29
GK

Article ____ of the Indian Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

A
31
B
226
C
13
D
32
Question 30
GK

In August 2023, Neeraj Chopra made history by winning the ______ medal/s in the men's javelin throw event at the World Athletics Championships held in Budapest, Hungary.

A
bronze
B
silver
C
gold
D
two
Question 31
GK

When Jan Aushadhi Train was flagged off by Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, Union Minister of Health & Family Welfare and Chemicals & Fertilizers, and Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister for Railways, Communications, Electronics and Information Technology?

A
In 2023
B
In 2020
C
In 2021
D
In 2022
Question 32
GK

Fatorpa Zatra and Mando festival are related with which of the following states?

A
Kerala
B
Karnataka
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Goa
Question 33
GK

The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2023 establishes the National Capital Civil Services Authority, which consists of the Chief Minister, Chief Secretary of Delhi and ______

A
Cabinet Secretary of India
B
Revenue Secretary of India
C
Education Minister of Delhi
D
Principal Home Secretary of Delhi
Question 34
GK

Which of the following gases, when cooled and compressed, can change from a gas to a supercritical fluid state?

A
Oxygen (O₂)
B
Hydrogen (H₂)
C
Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
D
Steam
Question 35
GK

As per Census 2011, India's population was 121.1 Crore with ______ female population.

A
42.5 percent
B
48.5 percent
C
44.5 percent
D
46.5 percent
Question 36
GK

Article 43: The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas, it is a Directive based on _______ Principles.

A
Intellectual
B
Socialist
C
Gandhian
D
Liberal
Question 37
Arithmetic

What is the value of  \([36 - (48 \times 7 \div 16) - (19 + 3 - 24)]?\)

A
15
B
13
C
17
D
11
Question 38
Arithmetic

Find LCM of 9/4, 21/10, 63/20.

A
21/2
B
2/63
C
85/7
D
63/2
Question 39
Arithmetic

M1 alone can do a work in 14 days and M2 alone can do the same work in 70 days. With help of M3, they finish the same work in 7 days. In how many days M3 alone can do the same work?

A
20 days
B
17.5 days
C
19 days
D
21 days
Question 40
Arithmetic

If a number R1 is 13 percent less than another number R2 and R2 is 50 percent more than 5600, then what is the value of R1?

A
7510
B
7308
C
7010
D
7101
Question 41
Arithmetic

If x : y = 7 : 2, then what is the value of (7x + 4y) : (7x - 4y)?

A
57 : 41
B
40 : 31
C
54 : 43
D
39 : 29
Question 42
Arithmetic

John deposited $ 1200 in a bank account. After 4 years, the total amount in the account is $ 1400. Find the rate of simple interest per annum.

A
4.17%
B
6.23%
C
5.83%
D
5.13%
Question 43
Arithmetic

A group of students has an average weight of 44 kg. One student of weight 40 kg leaves the group and another student of weight 34 kg joins the group. If the new average weight becomes 43.4 kg, then how many students are there in the group?

A
12
B
14
C
10
D
13
Question 44
Arithmetic

What is the value of 555 + 44 × 2 – 11 – 25 × 3?

A
498
B
458
C
468
D
557
Question 45
Arithmetic

Mohan buys an old mobile for Rs. 4000 and spends Rs. 500 on its repairs. If he sells the mobile for Rs. 5000, then what is his profit percentage?

A
11.11 percent
B
13.5 percent
C
12.5 percent
D
9.09 percent
Question 46
Arithmetic

P can do a work in 14 days. What part of the total work can be done by P in 4 days?

A
4/9
B
2/7
C
3/8
D
6/7
Question 47
Arithmetic

The marked price of an article is 25 percent more than its cost price. What maximum discount percentage can be offered by the shopkeeper to sell his article at profit?

A
12.5 percent
B
16.67 percent
C
20 percent
D
25 percent
Question 48
Arithmetic

Riya sold a laptop for ₹35000, earning a profit of 25%. If she wanted to earn a profit of 30%, at what price should she have sold the laptop?

A
Rs. 37200
B
Rs. 34600
C
Rs. 36400
D
Rs. 38400
Question 49
Arithmetic

After deducting 10 percent from a certain sum and then deducting 70 percent from the remainder, 1188 is left. What was that sum?

A
2200
B
5500
C
4400
D
3300
Question 50
Arithmetic

Two trains, one 390 metres and the other 250 metres long are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks, at the speed of 78 km/hr and 66 km/hr respectively. How much time will they take to cross each other?

A
36 seconds
B
16 seconds
C
24 seconds
D
30 seconds
Question 51
Arithmetic

Find the fourth proportional of 4x, x+4, 3x-1, if x=2

A
14/4
B
15/4
C
11/4
D
21/4
Question 52
Arithmetic

Marked price of an article is Rs. 9600 and its selling price is Rs. 6336. What is the discount percentage?

A
34 percent
B
38 percent
C
30 percent
D
25 percent
Question 53
Arithmetic

The average of 28 numbers is 110. If we add a number 'B' in each number, then the average becomes 128. What is the value of B?

A
12
B
24
C
18
D
14
Question 54
Arithmetic

A solid metallic sphere of radius 15 cm is melted and recast into a cone having diameter of the base as 15 cm. What is the height of the cone?

A
212 cm
B
186 cm
C
284 cm
D
240 cm
Question 55
Arithmetic

A person borrowed Rs. 15000 on compound interest at the rate of 30 percent per annum. If the interest is compounded half yearly, then what will be the amount to be paid after 1 year?

A
Rs. 20428.5
B
Rs. 19837.5
C
Rs. 17482.5
D
Rs. 18282.5
Question 56
Arithmetic

Three rectangular fields having areas of 70 m², 84 m², and 112 m² are to be divided into identical rectangular flower beds, each having a length of 7 m. Find the breadth of each flower bed.

A
4 m
B
3 m
C
2 m
D
6 m
Question 57
Comprehension

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word: "Raw cut leather coats, and ruffles in all shapes and sizes provided a delicate edge."

A
petite
B
attractive
C
laborious
D
crude
Question 58
Comprehension

Choose the option which is the antonym of (opposite of) the word "disseminate" in the sentence given below: "He tried to conceal his excitement, but the sparkle in his eyes gave away the joy he felt at the surprise."

A
sparkle
B
gave
C
felt
D
conceal
Question 59
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. To put somebody to sword

A
To be well-informed or up-to-date
B
To slay or execute someone
C
To deceive someone
D
To give challenge
Question 60
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. I would complain to my grandfather about him.

A
complaining to my
B
complained to my
C
No improvement
D
complains to my
Question 61
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. My father was very distant, but I suppose all men of his generation ______.

A
there
B
was
C
would
D
were
Question 62
Comprehension

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word. Abuse

A
Rebuke
B
Fester
C
Flowery
D
Applause
Question 63
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Cognitive

A
Latent
B
Perceivable
C
Obscure
D
Private
Question 64
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. There are ______ techniques you can use to cope and overcome it.

A
so
B
much
C
many
D
very
Question 65
Comprehension

Four sentences are given, out of which three have all correct spellings. Choose the sentence with the incorrect spelt word/words.

A
But Campion’s sensitivity realized it and he changed the subject rather suddenly.
B
The judge and the widow went to law to get the court to take me away from him and let one of them be my guardian.
C
He was wepping hard and quietly and shaking in the same parts as a wepping woman.
D
But Tommy is a watch-dog about the Divers.
Question 66
Comprehension

Select the sentence with no spelling errors. Sensational and often reckless repots in the press threaten the fainess of a trial.

A
Sensational and often reckless repots in the press threaten the fainess of a trial.
B
Sensational and often reckless reports in the press threaten the fairness of a trial.
C
Sensational and often recklss reports in the press threaten the fainess of a trial.
D
Sensational and often reckless reports in the press threten the fairness of a trial.
Question 67
Comprehension

The sentence has been divided into three parts, identify the error segment in the sentence given below. Choose "no error" if there is no error in the sentence. Her performance in the second round of the/ competition was even most impressive/ than her outstanding debut in the first round.

A
Her performance in the second round of the
B
competition was even most impressive
C
no error
D
than her outstanding debut in the first round
Question 68
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose "no error." Some bacterial cells on our hands may have genes that enabling them to be resistant to a given antibacterial agent.

A
No error
B
may have genes that enabling them
C
to be resistant to a given antibacterial agent
D
Some bacterial cells on our hands
Question 69
Comprehension

Choose the idiom/phrase that can substitute the highlighted group of words meaningfully. All the boys of this band are similar in many ways.

A
Eats like a bird
B
A piece of cake
C
Birds of a feather
D
Flocking birds
Question 70
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose "No error." Many students fails to understand the complexities of life.

A
No error
B
Many students fails
C
complexities of life.
D
to understand the
Question 71
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose "No improvement" as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. She plans to meet him at the airport.

A
meets him
B
No improvement
C
met him
D
meet himself
Question 72
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

A
nor
B
or
C
may be
D
also
Question 73
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

A
either
B
pretty much
C
neither
D
not much
Question 74
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

A
collapse
B
offend
C
ridicule
D
concede
Question 75
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

A
harmony
B
contract
C
clash
D
burning out
Question 76
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

A
claims
B
dignify
C
denial
D
morality