SSC-GD 2024 Questions

23 Feb 2024 • Shift 2

77 Questions AvailableTake as Test
Question 1
Logical Reasoning

Five friends P, B, C, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. H is sitting to the immediate right of C. B sitting third to the left of H. P is not an immediate neighbour of C. Who is sitting on the immediate right of H?

A
B
B
G
C
P
D
C
Question 2
Logical Reasoning

Find the next number in the series: 52, 49, 45, 40, 34, 27, ?

A
17
B
15
C
19
D
18
Question 3
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following letter will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? H, I, L, Q, X, ?

A
A
B
E
C
C
D
G
Question 4
Logical Reasoning

Arrange the given words in alphabetical order: 1. HEIGHT 2. HINGE 3. HORSE 4. HATE 5. HUSTLE

A
4, 5, 3, 2, 1
B
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C
4, 1, 2, 5, 3
D
4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Question 5
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'IDC' is coded as '216', 'JBH' is coded as '320'. What is the code for 'GOF' in that code language?

A
1260
B
1290
C
1200
D
1180
Question 6
Logical Reasoning

Three Statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statement I: Some trains are cars. Statement II: Some cars are trucks. Statement III: Some trucks are ships. Conclusion I: Some trains are ships. Conclusion II: Some ships are not cars.

A
Both conclusions I and II follow
B
Only conclusion I follows
C
Only conclusion II follows
D
Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Question 7
Logical Reasoning

Three positions of a dice are given below. What will come on the face opposite to the face containing 'D' on it?

A
A
B
F
C
C
D
B
Question 8
Logical Reasoning

If 8 R 4 S 3 T 2 = 31 and 19 R 11 S 30 T 8 = 187, then 6 R 3 S 8 T 5 = ?

A
15
B
21
C
20
D
18
Question 9
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series. $104, 126, 148, 170, 192, ?$

A
213
B
210
C
218
D
214
Question 10
Logical Reasoning

Select the option that is related to the fifth word in the same way as the fourth word is related to the third word and the second word is related to the first word. PINEAPPLE: FRUIT:: SPRITE: DRINK :: AVOCADO:?

A
GRAINS
B
FRUIT
C
DESSERT
D
VEGETABLE
Question 11
Logical Reasoning

Which of the following groups of letters when sequentially placed from left to right will complete the given series? xy_yzxyyyzxyy_zxyyyz_yyy_

A
yxyx
B
yzyy
C
zzyy
D
yyxz
Question 12
Logical Reasoning

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? $5-2\div4+9\times3=0$

A
+ and -
B
= and x
C
- and $\div$
D
x and ÷
Question 13
Logical Reasoning

Seven girls P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing opposite to the centre (not necessarily in the same order). P is to the immediate neighbour of both Q and R. S is not the immediate neighbour of either R or T. V is immediate neighbour of both T and U. V is second to the right of S. Who is sitting on the immediate left of S?

A
Q
B
V
C
U
D
P
Question 14
Logical Reasoning

Pointing to a boy, Sunita said, "He is the son of the sister of the daughter of my husband". How is that boy's father is related to Sunita?

A
Son
B
Daughter's son
C
Daughter's husband
D
Brother
Question 15
Logical Reasoning

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives. TGX: SFW :: BOR:?

A
SUY
B
ZXY
C
ANQ
D
NMN
Question 16
Logical Reasoning

Two positions of a dice are given below. What will come on the face opposite to the face containing '1' on it?

A
3
B
5
C
6
D
4
Question 17
Logical Reasoning

In a certain code language, 'POLISH' is coded as 'FSGLMP'. What is the code for 'PRAISE' in that code language?

A
CGSAPP
B
CSGPAP
C
CSGAPP
D
CSGAPO
Question 18
GK

In which year was the Second Anglo-Burmese War fought?

A
1852
B
1552
C
1652
D
1752
Question 19
GK

Who was the last ruler of the Mauryan empire?

A
Bindusara
B
Ashoka
C
Chandragupta Maurya
D
Brihadratha
Question 20
GK

At independence, about __________ per cent of the country's population was dependent on agriculture.

A
90
B
40
C
20
D
75
Question 21
GK

Which Indian dancer won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2018 for __________ or String puppetry?

A
Anupama Hoskere
B
Surupa Sen
C
Tapan Kumar Pattanayak
D
Dr. Aruna Mohanty
Question 22
GK

Which of the following statement is correct about the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023? I. The Bill will apply to the processing of digital personal data within India where such data is collected online or collected offline and is digitized. II. It will also apply to such processing outside India, if it is for offering goods or services in India.

A
Only II
B
Only I
C
Both I and II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 23
GK

The government of India in Budget 2023-24, has adopted how many priorities?

A
Seven
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
Question 24
GK

Since which year did rapid economic growth led to a sharp reduction in India's extreme poverty?

A
1994
B
1991
C
1992
D
1993
Question 25
GK

Which sport is played by the Indian sportsperson Shafali Verma?

A
Hockey
B
Cricket
C
Volleyball
D
Badminton
Question 26
GK

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Classification of Expenditure of government? I. Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the central government. II. Capital expenditure results in creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities.

A
Both I and II
B
Only I
C
Only II
D
Neither I nor II
Question 27
GK

The growth rate target for the twelfth five year plan was __________.

A
6%
B
8%
C
7%
D
5%
Question 28
GK

Rann Utsav promotes natural beauty and other famous traveling places of the stunning zone of __________ During the full moon nights in the winter season, the white sand desert looks more mesmerizing.

A
Andaman
B
Kutch
C
Odisha
D
Malabar
Question 29
GK

The 2010 Commonwealth Games were held in __________ in India.

A
New Delhi
B
Chandigarh
C
Mumbai
D
Lucknow
Question 30
GK

Liquids flow and change shape, they are NOT rigid and thus they are also called as __________.

A
Solution
B
Mixtures
C
liquefied
D
fluid
Question 31
GK

Who took oath as the 50th Chief Justice of India?

A
Kapil Sibal
B
U.U Lalit
C
Kiren Rijiju
D
DY Chandrachud
Question 32
GK

Which one of the following dance form is performed by Kuruba men in Karnataka?

A
Chhau
B
Fugdi
C
Dollu kunitha
D
Bagurumba
Question 33
GK

The idea of __________ has been borrowed from the Constitution of erstwhile USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).

A
Fundamental Rights
B
Preamble
C
Both Fundamental Duties and Fundamental Rights
D
Fundamental Duties
Question 34
GK

Who is famous for playing the percussion instrument Tabla?

A
Bismillah Khan
B
Ayodhya Prasad
C
Ali Ahmad Hussain
D
Allah Rakha
Question 35
GK

Which country hosted the Sultan of Johor Cup 2023?

A
Cambodia
B
Singapore
C
India
D
Malaysia
Question 36
GK

Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the Supreme Court as a court of record?

A
Article 129
B
Article 123
C
Article 127
D
Article 125
Question 37
GK

Which state has the highest population growth according to the 2011 census?

A
Bihar
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Meghalaya
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 38
Arithmetic

Avinash can build a machine eleven times faster than Bipin and takes 100 days less than Bipin. In how many days does Avinash and Bipin can individually build the machine?

A
10 and 110 days
B
15 and 115 days
C
15 and 105 days
D
20 and 120 days
Question 39
Arithmetic

Pankaj purchased two bikes, first for Rs. 24000 and the second for Rs. 20000. He sold both the bikes, first one at the profit of 20 percent and the second at a loss of 30 percent. What is the overall profit or loss?

A
Loss = Rs. 1400
B
Profit = Rs. 1400
C
Profit = Rs. 1200
D
Loss = Rs. 1200
Question 40
Arithmetic

In an exam, Naveen got 21 percent marks and he failed by 25 marks. If he gets 46 percent marks, then he fails by 5 marks. What are the maximum marks of the exam?

A
60
B
80
C
120
D
100
Question 41
Arithmetic

The ratio of selling price to the cost price is $7: 11$. What is the loss percentage?

A
35.08 percent
B
33.33 percent
C
36.36 percent
D
27.58 percent
Question 42
Arithmetic

What will be the compound interest (compounding annually) on a principle sum of Rs. $72000$ for $3$ years at the rate of $16$ percent per annum?

A
Rs. 38245.22
B
Rs. 42248.64
C
Rs. 40384.51
D
Rs. 36574.31
Question 43
Arithmetic

A certain distance is covered at a certain speed. If double of this distance is covered in six times the time, then find the ratio of the two speeds.

A
$3:1$
B
$3:4$
C
$2:1$
D
$4:5$
Question 44
Arithmetic

Gaurav is four times as efficient as Shambu. Gaurav takes $67.5$ days less than Shambu to complete a work. If both of them work together, then in how many days will the same work be completed?

A
90 days
B
18 days
C
55 days
D
25 days
Question 45
Arithmetic

If P is $15$ percent less than Q, then Q is how much percentage more than P?

A
15.46 percent
B
18.44 percent
C
17.64 percent
D
16.64 percent
Question 46
Arithmetic

What is the value of $0.\overline5 + 0.\overline3$?

A
$\frac{8}{9}$
B
$\frac{2}{3}$
C
$\frac{3}{4}$
D
$\frac{7}{9}$
Question 47
Arithmetic

The average of the three numbers X, Y and Z is 54. X is 10 more than the average of Y and Z. Y is 12 more than the average of Y and Z. What is the difference between X and Z?

A
22
B
26
C
18
D
24
Question 48
Arithmetic

If the average of $24, 28, 27, 23, D$ and $E$ is $29$, then what is the average of $D$ and $E$?

A
38
B
36
C
35
D
37
Question 49
Arithmetic

Which of the following number is not divisible by 8?

A
5968
B
5896
C
6032
D
6044
Question 50
Arithmetic

$1/4$ of marked price is equal to $2/3$ of selling price. What is the discount percent?

A
62.5 percent
B
65 percent
C
50 percent
D
60 percent
Question 51
Arithmetic

In a mixture of $120$ litre the ratio of water and milk is $5:7$ respectively. How much water must be added to make the ratio of water and milk as $1:1$ respectively?

A
20 litre
B
15 litre
C
10 litre
D
25 litre
Question 52
Arithmetic

A vendor marks his goods at $40\%$ above the cost price. If he offers a discount of $30\%$, what is the loss percentage?

A
3%
B
2.50%
C
2%
D
1.50%
Question 53
Arithmetic

A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. $1060$ in $2.5$ years and Rs. $1000$ in $1$ year at simple interest. What is the annual rate of interest?

A
6.28 percent
B
4.17 percent
C
5.28 percent
D
5.45 percent
Question 54
Arithmetic

Rs. $17600$ is divided among Raja, Ram and Mohan in the ratio of $6:7:9$ respectively. What is the share of Mohan?

A
Rs. 7200
B
Rs. 4800
C
Rs. 5600
D
Rs. 4000
Question 55
Arithmetic

The diagonals of a rhombus are $10$ cm and $30$ cm respectively. What is the area of the rhombus?

A
$150$ cm$^2$
B
$105$ cm$^2$
C
$100$ cm$^2$
D
$75$ cm$^2$
Question 56
Arithmetic

Evaluate: $14-3 \times (5+2) \div 4$.

A
8.75
B
5.72
C
6.29
D
11.36
Question 57
Arithmetic

What is the value of $11\frac{1}{2} + 12\frac{1}{2} + 13\frac{1}{2} + 14\frac{1}{2}$?

A
52
B
57
C
50
D
49
Question 58
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Passable

A
Inadequate
B
Middling
C
Particular
D
Lavish
Question 59
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. __________ useful gadgets should find a home in every kitchen.

A
There
B
This
C
These
D
They
Question 60
Comprehension

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. To come into the open

A
To leave the work
B
To accept the challenge
C
To open new business
D
To become public or evident
Question 61
Comprehension

The sentence has been divided into three parts, identify the segment which contains a spelling error in the sentence given below. Choose no error if there is no error in the sentence. The college relied on the patronege of its wealthy graduates/ to expand its funds.

A
no error
B
patronege of its wealthy graduates
C
to expand its funds.
D
The college relied on the
Question 62
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Abscond

A
Clear Out
B
Tarnish
C
Appear
D
Guilty
Question 63
Comprehension

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word. Craving

A
Palate
B
Alarm
C
Pining
D
Satisfaction
Question 64
Comprehension

Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select 'No error'. Wopsle had gone farthest, / and had better stop in his reckless career / while there was yet time.

A
while there was yet time.
B
No error
C
and had better stop in his reckless career
D
Wopsle had gone farthest,
Question 65
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose 'No improvement' as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. Even as a boy Alexander has fearless and strong.

A
is fearlessly
B
was fearless
C
were fearless
D
No improvement
Question 66
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. Some kinds of health crises does have political consequences.

A
political consequences.
B
No error
C
crises does have
D
Some kinds of health
Question 67
Comprehension

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. Who am I and __________ am I? A nobody, not wanted by any one, nor of use to anybody.

A
when
B
why
C
what
D
whom
Question 68
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Lewis asked (tactlessly), as he did not know that the motive was.

A
Blissfully
B
Ignorantly
C
Civilly
D
Bluntly
Question 69
Comprehension

Choose the idiom/phrase that can substitute the highlighted group of words meaningfully. I can't stand a passenger in a car who gives unwanted advice to the driver , like my mother-in-law.

A
Make No Bones About
B
Backseat driver
C
Tongue And Cheek
D
Up in arms
Question 70
Comprehension

Select the incorrectly spelt word from the given sentence. The experiences gained by the Americans in the Civil War helped to conferm this preconception.

A
gained
B
experiences
C
preconception
D
conferm
Question 71
Comprehension

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose 'No improvement' as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. I asleep in and missed the bus!

A
slept in and
B
sleeps in and
C
No improvement
D
sleep in or
Question 72
Comprehension

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'. I am looking forward to meet you at the conference tomorrow.

A
No error
B
at the conference tomorrow.
C
to meet you
D
I am looking forward
Question 73
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (1)

A
intrigued
B
triggered
C
called
D
wearied
Question 74
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (2)

A
fabricate
B
intel
C
devise
D
halt
Question 75
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (3)

A
so
B
as
C
or
D
that
Question 76
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (4)

A
impacts
B
clashes
C
noise
D
face
Question 77
Comprehension

Select the most appropriate option for blank (5)

A
safer
B
safely
C
safest
D
safety